Psychiatric and Mental Health Care

Self-Study Examination

Instructions: After studying the text answer the following true/false or multiple choice questions.  Remember, there's only one answer to each question.

1. Which of the following is not a common therapeutic modality?

a) individual therapy
b) crisis intervention
c) hypnosis
d) primal therapy

2. One of the therapeutic communication techniques encourages the patient to provide comparison. Which of the following examples represents this technique?

a) "After that occurred, what did you do next?"
b) "Did this happen before or after ... ?"
c) "Was this experience similar to ... ?"
d) "Isn't that an unusual experience?"

3. Honesty is a principle that enhances communication. Is the following an example of such a technique? "I disagree with what you said. I feel that if you're going to ask your spouse to perform that task, then you need to allow him to do it in a way that is

a) yes
b) no

4. One of the following statements does not belong in the context of crisis intervention treatment:

a) Strategies that normally work are no longer effective.
b) Client is unable to handle routine activities of daily living.
c) The client has negative views of himself, the world, and the future.
d) The duration of the crisis is seldom more than 4 to 6 weeks.

5. One of the following is not an example of biological therapy:

a) psychoactive medications
b) deep relaxation
c) electroconvulsive therapy
d) psychosurgery

6. The basic goal of cognitive therapy is:

a) to assist clients to develop more rational thinking
b) to assess, interpret, advocate for, and evaluate client needs
c) to facilitate the client's ability to control the situation
d) to enable the client to live outside the institutional setting

7. One of the following is not a major purpose of hypnosis:

a) enable clients to relax
b) induce the client to act in a desired manner
c) uncover repressed feelings and thoughts
d) facilitate behavioral changes

8. Which therapy has been used to treat adolescents with ADHD and oppositional defiant disorder?

a) hypnosis
b) group therapy
c) behavioral therapy
d) play therapy

9. Almost all admissions to state psychiatric hospitals are involuntary.

a) True
b) False

10. When clients have used all their insurance benefits and can't otherwise pay, they can be discharged from a facility even if staff believe that the discharge is premature or not in the client's best interest.

a) True
b) False

11. Autistic disorder affects males more than females.

a) True
b) False

12. An autistic child has difficulty:

a) engaging in quiet activities
b) difficulty completing tasks
c) being kind to people and animals
d) engaging in social activities and contact with peers

13. Recent research supports the use of psychotherapy or psychoanalysis with autistic children.

a) True
b) False

14. Which of the following is not a behavioral symptom of a child with ADHD?

a) defiant and hostile behavior
b) inattention
c) impulsiveness
d) hyperactivity

15. Therapy for ADHD is usually short term and focuses on reducing symptoms.

a) True
b) False

16. Stimulant drugs have been found to be effective in a majority of children with ADHD.

a) True
b) False

17. Impaired social interaction in an ADHD child is often the result of all of the following except:

a) poor self-esteem
b) chaotic family background
c) parental substance abuse
d) child abuse

18. All of the following are common symptoms of delirium disorder except:

a) disorientation
b) confabulation
c) disorganized thinking
d) illusions or hallucinations

19. Substance-induced delirium resolves itself as the intoxication ends.

a) True
b) False

20. People with dementia have a tendency to overestimate their own abilities and the activities that they can participate in and accomplish.

a) True
b) False

21. In dementia of the Alzheimer type, cognitive deficits occur due to disorders of the central nervous system.

a) True
b) False

22. Which of the following is not a cause of amnestic disorder?

a) traumatic brain injury
b) stroke
c) endocrine dysfunction
d) carbon monoxide poisoning

23. Which of the following does not apply to people with amnestic disorder?

a) they are unable to learn new information
b) they suffer from loss of speech, writing ability, or language comprehension
c) they are unable to recall already learned information
d) they may remember the remote past, but not the recent past

24. Which of the following drugs shows the least significant withdrawal symptoms?

a) alcohol
b) cocaine
c) nicotine
d) PCP

25. Tolerance, withdrawal, or a pattern of compulsive usethese call for a diagnosis of:

a) substance dependence
b) substance abuse

26. One of the following is not an effect of cocaine:

a) potential for permanent damage to brain
b) hypervigilance
c) paranoia
d) euphoria followed by depression

27. One of the withdrawal symptoms of cocaine is increased appetite.

a) True
b) False

28. Which of the following is an example of positive symptom of schizophrenia?

a) inappropriate affect
b) limited body language
c) hallucinations
d) avolition

29. Which of the following statements is not a proper communication strategy in dealing with a schizophrenic patient?

a) "What are you experiencing now?"
b) "They could not be talking about you since they don't even know you."
c) "Tell me what you hear."
d) "Do you feel like you will hurt yourself?"

30. Which of the following is not a common symptom of catatonic type of schizophrenia?

a) illogical thinking
b) mutism
c) echolalia
d) echopraxia

31. Which of the following characteristics establishes the nursing diagnosis of altered thought process?

a) little or no interaction with staff
b) increased attention to internal voices
c) avoidance of people
d) limited or no attention span

32. Which of the following is not a proper intervention in dealing with a patient who is hallucinating?

a) teach the patient distraction techniques, such as singing, listening to a radio, or reading out loud
b) wait till the patient has stopped hallucinating and then talk to him about his experience
c) do not deny the patient's experience, but tell him that his sensory perceptions are not shared by other people
d) involve the patient in concrete activities, such as work, music, games, or specific tasks

33. Which of the following characteristics leads to the nursing diagnosis of impaired verbal communication?

a) impaired attention
b) avoidance of people and interaction and opportunities
c) expression of highly emotional experiences in a flat manner
d) emotional and physical withdrawal

34. If a client experiences blurred vision as a side effect of antipsychotic drug, limit patient's reading to large print books.

a) True
b) False

35. Which of the following is not a theme of delusional disorder?

a) erotomania
b) unprovoked hostility
c) grandiosity
d) persecution

36. Which is the most common type of delusional disorder?

a) erotomania
b) grandiosity
c) jealousy
d) somatic abnormality

37. Schizoaffective disorder produces more severe and frequent chronic symptoms than schizophrenia.

a) True
b) False

38. Typical symptoms of depression include all of the following except:

a) severe fatigue
b) inability to make decisions
c) homicidal thoughts
d) extreme guilt

39. Common factors that predispose a person to depression do not include:

a) family history
b) chronic physical illness
c) disability
d) substance abuse

40. People in the age group of 20 to 40 are more at risk for suicide than those either younger or older.

a) True
b) False

41. Helping a patient cope with grieving includes all of the following interventions except:

a) spend time with friends
b) physical exercise
c) electroconvulsive therapy
d) spiritual support

42. The physician will not order electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)

a) when severe depression is present
b) if the client is extremely suicidal
c) if the client is not responding to antidepressant medication
d) if the client becomes violent

43. There's evidence to suggest that bipolar disorder occurs in families.

a) True
b) False

44. Panic attacks are usually due to the physiological effects of a substance or to a general medical condition.

a) True
b) False

45. More males than females are affected by social phobias.

a) True
b) False

46. If the patient engages in a compulsive behavior during a nurse-patient interaction, the nurse should immediately call attention to this behavior and ask the patient to stop it.

a) True
b) False

47. Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) almost always occurs in adults.

a) True
b) False

48. Drug therapy is often not effective for a person with PTSD.

a) True
b) False

49. Generalized anxiety disorder affects women more than men by a ratio of 2:1.

a) True
b) False

50. In caring for a person suffering from generalized anxiety disorder, the family should relieve the patient of his daily responsibilities during periods of anxiety.

a) True
b) False

51. The symptoms experienced by a person suffering from somatoform disorder are:

a) not explainable by a medical condition
b) intentionally produced by the patient
c) similar to those shown by a hypochondriac patient
d) none of the above

52. Clients with somatoform disorder usually don't benefit from medication.

a) True
b) False

53. In conversion disorder, physical symptoms occur because of intense emotional conflict.

a) True
b) False

54. Conversion disorder symptoms:

a) affect voluntary motor capacity
b) are produced by the patient
c) can be explained physiologically after the patient has been thoroughly examined
d) all of the above

55. Pain disorder is usually caused due to:

a) psychological factors alone
b) general medical condition alone
c) neither psychological or medical condition
d) both psychological and medical condition

56. The best approach in dealing with a patient with hypochondriasis is:

a) encourage the patient to freely talk about his physical complaints
b) challenge the patient's description of symptoms
c) talk about topics other than physical complaints
d) do not acknowledge the patient's health concerns

57. Dissociative amnesia occurs:

a) during posttraumatic stress disorder
b) after experiencing severe psychosocial stress
c) during somatization disorder
d) during a dissociative identity disorder

58. In localized dissociative amnesia, the person can remember some but not all of the events that occurred.

a) True
b) False

59. What is helpful in the treatment of dissociative disorder?

a) individual and group therapy
b) medications

60. The person with anorexia nervosa is usually all of the following except:

a) perfectionist
b) secretive
c) obsessive compulsive
d) underachieving in studies

61. Many clients with anorexia nervosa spend an inordinate amount of time and energy in food preparation and gourmet cooking.

a) True
b) False

62. The family of a patient with eating disorders is all of the following except:

a) overprotective
b) lacking in affection and warmth
c) not involved in the patient's life
d) dysfunctional

63. Most bulimic clients are within their normal weight range.

a) True
b) False

64. The person with bulimia nervosa may suffer from all of the following except:

a) hypokalemia
b) metabolic acidosis
c) metabolic alkalosis
d) drastic weight loss

65. Which of the following is an inappropriate intervention in the treatment of bulimia nervosa?

a) establish a contract with the client
b) use a team approach
c) ask the client to eat her meals alone
d) have the client keep a diary about her feelings and behavior

66. Families of persons with eating disorders are usually overinvolved in their lives.

a) True
b) False

67. Adjustment disorders are brought about by following stressors except:

a) chronic illness
b) death of a loved one
c) business crisis
d) becoming a parent

68. Medications are not given to clients with adjustment disorders, since the condition is typically self-limiting.

a) True
b) False

69. Common stress management techniques do not include:

a) deep breathing
b) biofeedback
c) fasting
d) transfer of energy from the healer to the client

70. Paranoid personality disorder is seen equally in females and males.

a) True
b) False

71. Which of the following is not a typical characteristic of people with schizoid personality disorder?

a) indifferent to interpersonal relationships
b) inability to experience a normal range of emotions
c) little interest in sexual relationships
d) exaggerated sense of self-importance

72. The common denominator among people suffering from cluster A personality disorders is that they are socially isolated.

a) True
b) False

73. The person with schizotypal personality disorder would exhibit symptoms more severe than a person with a diagnosis of schizophrenia.

a) True
b) False

74. Communication strategies for clients with cluster A personality disorders include all of the following except:

a) do not use logic or reasoning
b) do not use humor
c) reassure the client by touching
d) avoid controversial topics

75. Therapy is of little use to persons suffering from cluster A personality disorders.

a) True
b) False

76. The diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder is generally appropriate only in clients over the age of 18.

a) True
b) False

77. How would you classify people who engage in sexually provocative behavior with coworkers or social acquaintances in order to be the center of attention?

a) antisocial personality disorder
b) borderline personality disorder
c) histrionic personality disorder
d) narcissistic personality disorder

78. Avoidant personality disorder features do not include:

a) pervasive feelings of social discomfort
b) perfectionism
c) timid behavior
d) acute sensitivity to criticism

79. Which of the following cluster C personality disorders is marked by perfectionism?

a) avoidant personality disorder
b) dependent personality disorder
c) obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

80. Persons with dependent personality disorder like to control situations and make decisions for others.

a) True
b) False

81. Psychological factors that affect medical problems include all of the following except:

a) anxiety and depression
b) maladaptive behaviors, such as smoking or overeating
c) somatoform disorder
d) schizophrenia

82. Classify sleepwalking disorder into one of the following groups:

a) dyssomnias
b) parasomnias
c) sleep disorders related to other physiologic or psychological conditions

83. The single most common psychiatric condition seen in the homeless population is:

a) schizophrenia
b) affective disorders
c) personality disorders
d) substance abuse disorders

84. To help the homeless client resume socially acceptable level of functioning after a traumatic event, the appropriate nursing intervention should be:

a) allow the client to ventilate his feelings
b) provide for his safety needs
c) arrange for medical attention
d) all of the above

85. The focus of therapeutic intervention with the chronically mentally ill homeless should be all of the following except:

a) psychotherapy
b) assistance with performing self-care activities
c) medication compliance
d) basic social and survival skills

86. The major challenge in providing therapeutic intervention with the chronically mentally ill homeless is that these clients are:

a) demanding and often hostile
b) unable to assume responsibility for making appointments or requesting services on their own
c) mobile with a tendency to wander away
d) b and c

87. In each state healthcare professionals are required to report suspected child abuse to the appropriate state or county child protective services agency.

a) True
b) False

88. Only the trained and experienced nurse or a counselor should use dolls, puppets, and drawings to communicate with an abused child.

a) True
b) False

89. In dealing with an abused child, therapists should provide support by hugging and touching.

a) True
b) False

90. In helping an abused child express feelings, it is important to:

a) establish a warm, trusting relationship
b) help the child express negative feelings
c) encourage expression through play therapy
d) all of the above

91. Currently, healthcare professionals are not required to report partner abuse.

a) True
b) False

92. Which of the following is the proper question to ask of an abused partner?

a) "Did your partner inflict these injuries?"
b) "Why do you stay with him?"
c) "You should not anger or embarrass your partner."
d) "You need to work on your self esteem."

93. The physical safety plan devised for an abused partner does not include:

a) memorizing the hotline number
b) directory of medical resources
c) obtaining a restraining order
d) carrying a handgun

94. Prescription of anxiolytics and pain medications for abused persons is a recommended medical intervention.

a) True
b) False

95. The definition of rape includes the intentional touch of the victim's sexual parts accompanied by force of threats.

a) True
b) False

96. Healthcare professionals are under legal obligation to report a rape to the authorities.

a) True
b) False

97. One of the following is not a supportive statement while talking to a rape victim:

a) "You should change your attire."
b) "I'm so sorry this happened to you."
c) "You are safe now."
d) "I know you handled this situation right because you're alive."

98. Most states have laws that require the reporting of elder abuse.

a) True
b) False

99. Many people who abuse their parents are likely to have been abused by them as children.

a) True
b) False

100. Common psychiatric symptoms associated with AIDS include:

a) paranoid thoughts or behaviors
b) feelings of hopelessness
c) suicidal ideation
d) all of the above