Alzheimers Disease

Self-Study Examination

Instructions: After studying the text answer the following true/false or multiple choice questions.  Remember, there's only one answer to each question.

1. Which of the following best defines executive function:

a) Maintaining coordination, balance and movement
b) Learning a new skill, multitasking, being attentive
c) Writing, developing artistic ability, remaining focused
d) Organizing tasks, solving problems and remembering details

2. Older adults focus on and remember:

a) More negative than positive information
b) More positive than negative information
c) Recent events better than past events
d) Smells better than sounds

3. Examples of semantic memory are:

a) A vacation a few years ago or a graduation
b) Definitions of words, where a state is located
c) Phone numbers and addresses
d) Riding a bike, tying your shoe laces

4. _____________ memory is stored for seconds to minutes and information is actively rehearsed manipulated.

a) Working
b) Procedural

5. In some cases the cause of cognitive problems may be curable with:

a) A high protein diet
b) Folic acid
c) Vitamin B-12
d) A decrease in complex carbohydrates

6. In ________ mild cognitive impairment the person exhibits problems with reasoning, judgement and communication.

a) Amnesic
b) Temporary
c) Degenerative
d) Nonamnesic

7. A ______ disorder destroys nerve cells in the brain and gets worse over time. Alzheimer’s disease is an example.

a) Vascular
b) Neurodegenerative
c) Psychiatric

8. A his type of test looks at brain activity rather than physical structure:

a) Functional imaging
b) Magnetic resonance imaging
c) Molecular imaging
d) Positron emission tomography

9. One challenge scientists face who study mild cognitive impairment is:

a) Prescribing medications and supplements
b) Developing treatments to prevent progression to dementia
c) Studying the genetic code of family members
d) Listing criteria that describes the stages of mild cognitive impairment

10. Dementia is:

a) A normal part of aging
b) A disease
c) A syndrome
d) A collection of signs and symptoms that occur randomly

11. The most common cause of dementia is:

a) Alzheimer’s disease
b) Lewy body dementia
c) Frontotemporal degeneration
d) Vascular disorders

12. Which of the following most accurately describes Huntington’s disease:

a) The first sign is walking slowly with short shuffling steps
b) Fluid builds up in the brain and a shunt is surgically placed
c) An inherited disease that develops in middle age
d) Misshapen proteins cause this disease
e) Symptoms are jerking and writhing movements 1 and 2 3 and 4 2 and 5 1 and 4 3 and 5

13. Delirium may be caused by poor nutrition.

a) True
b) False

14. Drawing a clock or a complex figure is an example of:

a) Motor skill
b) Visuospatial skill
c) Executive skill
d) Remote memory
e) Thinking speed

15. Which offers a more detailed picture:

a) MRI
b) CT scan

16. The amyloid PET scan shows the amount of beta-amyloid in the brain. These areas are a hallmark of Alzheimer’s disease and are present:

a) After symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease confirms a diagnosis
b) In the late stages of Alzheimer’s disease
c) Years before symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease develops
d) Only in the most severe cases

17. A common symptom of vascular cognitive impairment is:

a) Unable to do everyday tasks
b) Developing a “sweet tooth”
c) Lack of coordination with tremors
d) Difficulty deciding what to do next

18. Plaques are:

a) Dense deposits of protein that form outside of brain cells
b) Present in Alzheimer’s disease
c) An abnormal structure inside a neuron
d) A buildup of protein called tau 1 and 2 3 and 4 2 and 3 1 and 4

19. Young-onset Alzheimer’s disease:

a) Is the most common form
b) Causes nonmemory symptoms and seizures are likely
c) Develops before age 65
d) Often is linked to a gene apolipoprotein 1 and 2 1 and 4 2 and 3 2 and 4 3 and 4

20. Mitochondria are the cell’s energy factory and when damaged produce free radicals. This damage can be caused by normal aging or disease. This process is called:

a) Inflammation
b) Oxidative stress
c) Impairment
d) Revascularization

21. A classic sign of Alzheimer’s disease is:

a) Language difficulties
b) Behavior changes
c) Diminished executive function skills
d) Forgetting recent events

22. Preclinical Alzheimer’s disease:

a) Causes memory lapses of recent events or conversations
b) Can be caused by another disease
c) May last between 15 and 25 years
d) Has no noticeable symptoms 1 and 2 2 and 3 3 and 4 2 and 4

23. Research suggests that up to 40% of people with Alzheimer’s dementia experience this at some point:

a) Anxiety
b) Depression
c) Sleep disorders

24. laques and tangles are the most common cause of this damage which results in:

a) Posterior cortical atrophy
b) Logopenic variant primary progressive aphasia
c) Behavioral/dysexecutive Alzheimer’s disease

25. Sporadic Alzheimer’s:

a) Has a genetic cause
b) Is also called atypical Alzheimer’s disease
c) Has no genetic cause
d) Has more severe symptoms, especially vision, language and executive skills

26. The way the brain filters incoming information is by processing some and ignoring others. This is called:

a) Memory loss
b) Sporadic confusion
c) Cognitive processes
d) Selective attention

27. This cholinesterase inhibitor is available for severe Alzheimer’s disease as a skin patch which may lessen stomach issues:

a) Aricept
b) Exelon
c) Razadyne

28. Newer atypical antipsychotics are often used because they cause fewer side effects but may also:

a) Increase problems swallowing and risk of falls
b) Promote agitation and disruptive behavior
c) Raise blood glucose to abnormally high levels
d) Lower pulse rate and blood pressure

29. Frontotemporal degeneration:

a) Is the third most common neurodegenerative disorder
b) Has memory loss as an early symptom
c) Affects adults between ages 40-65
d) Causes behavioral changes later on 1 and 2 3 and 4 2 and 4 1 and 3

30. Behavioral variant frontotemporal degeneration:

a) Causes problem with memory, reasoning and judgement
b) Is the most common type of frontotemporal degeneration
c) Is diagnosed with a PET scan
d) Results in weak muscles, slow movements and decrease facial expression

31. Which of the following is an example of integrative medicine:

a) Taking an antidepressant and interacting with a dog
b) A speech therapy class and talking in a group
c) Tasting new foods and discussing healthy options
d) Joining a support group and working in a garden

32. Rounded protein deposits in the brainstem and in the area above the brainstem are called Lewy ______ . Alpha-synuclein was found in the branches of brain cells and these deposits are called Lewy ______.

a) Bodies, neurites
b) Neurites, bodies

33. Fluctuations:

a) Of a good or bad episode may last for weeks
b) Are more common with Lewy body disease
c) Occur at any time of the day
d) Are less extreme as dementia progresses and worsens
e) Result more commonly in women over age 60 1,2 and 3 3,4 and 5 2 and 4 1,2 and 5 1,3 and 4

34. An example of an autonomic dysfunction is:

a) Skin rash
b) Conjunctivitis
c) Dental caries
d) Bladder infections

35. The MRI shows the size of the ______ and determines the smaller size is an indicator or Alzheimer’s disease and why memory problems are affected first.

a) Medulla
b) Hippocampus
c) Brainstem
d) Cerebellum

36. hich of the following medication should the person with Lewy body dementia avoid:

a) Colace
b) Benadryl
c) Tylenol
d) Guaifenesin

37. Your risk of vascular cognitive impairment is linked to:

a) The health of your blood vessels
b) Heredity
c) Lifestyle
d) Severity of pre-existing conditions

38. The Systolic Blood Pressure Intervention Trial study of 2010 found that the lower blood pressure target reduced the risk of stroke by nearly

a) A fourth
b) A third
c) One half

39. When compared with Alzheimer’s disease, people diagnosed with vascular cognitive impairment experience:

a) A steady decline in cognition
b) A longer life span
c) Agitation and restlessness
d) Greater physical disability and problems with movement

40. Stigmas contribute to low self-esteem and are harmful to the person with dementia.

a) True
b) False

41. Behaviors or expressions like agitation are:

a) Based on the severity of the disease
b) Seen in advanced stages
c) Dependent on the area of the brain affected
d) The result of an unmet need

42. hich of the following is an appropriate use of language:

a) Calling them a patient
b) Seen in advanced stages
c) Dependent on the area of the brain affected
d) The result of an unmet need

43. Anosognosia is best defined as:

a) Accepting dependence
b) lack of insight about an impairment
c) word finding problems
d) atrophy of brain tissue

44. The earliest and strongest emotion that family members feel with a dementia diagnosis can be:

a) Denial
b) Depression
c) Fear
d) Guilt
e) Embarrassment

45. One of the best things you can do after being diagnosed with dementia is:

a) Tell your family about the diagnosis
b) Move to assisted living
c) Enroll in a research program
d) Live your life as fully as you can
e) Join a support group

46. Procedural memory:

a) Has to be consciously recalled
b) Is a structured of facts
c) Is less affected early on
d) Is almost automatic and requires little thought
e) Has to be rehearsed frequently 1,2 and 5 2,3 and 4 1 and 5 2 and 5 3 and 4

47. This accommodation benefits everyone. It offers comfort, control , predictability and reduces anxiety and stress:

a) Technology
b) Routine
c) Assistive devices
d) Adaptations

48. When discussing end of life issues with a person living with dementia, it is usually best to:

a) Offer options or choices
b) Ask open-ended questions
c) Finish the sentence or thought for them
d) Involve all family members

49. This document is flexible because the person can make decisions about care not stated in a living will:

a) Next of kin
b) Power of attorney
c) Advance directive
d) Notary public

50. Palliative care can be offered to a person:

a) Of any age with a serious disease in any stage
b) Who has less than 6 months to live
c) In a dedicated facility for terminally ill patients

51. People caring for an older adult and child under the age of 18 simultaneously belong to the sandwich generation which is about ______ care partners.

a) 2 in 4
b) 1 in 10
c) 1 in 4
d) 4 in 5

52. A _______ acknowledges the reciprocal relationship between a person with dementia and a spouse, partner or relative.

a) Care partner
b) Caregiver

53. A n example of disinhibition is:

a) Depression that is unresolved
b) Agitation
c) Aggression
d) Apathy related to cognitive issues
e) Poorly controlled emotions or actions

54. The idea of using therapeutic fibbing is to decrease worry, sadness, agitation or anxiety.

a) True
b) False

55. In this type of grief there are two conflicting realities, your love one is alive and well but you have noticed small changes that signal bigger and more painful changes to come:

a) Anticipatory grief
b) Ambiguous loss
c) Disenfranchised grief

56. This formal support group may be for men who are caregivers or adult children caring for a parent:

a) Disease-specific groups
b) Relationship-specific groups
c) Peer-led support groups
d) Groups led by a trained facilitator
e) Online and telephone caregiver groups

57. Researchers have found you may be twice as likely to develop Alzheimer’s disease if which of the following occurs:

a) Inactivity
b) Hypertension
c) Social isolation
d) Smoking
e) Lack of sleep

58. People who say their cognitive ability has changed even when their cognitive tests come back as normal is called:

a) Identifiable dementia
b) Sub clinical decline
c) Subjective cognitive impairment
d) Premature senility

59. ______ are substances that are important for processes the body needs to maintain life. Researchers have identified 26 of these substances in the blood and brain of someone with Alzheimer’s disease.

a) Metabolites
b) Biomarkers
c) Prions
d) Beta-amyloid