Product Guide to Skin & Wound Care

Self-Study Examination

Instructions: After studying the text answer the following true/false or multiple choice questions.  Remember, there's only one answer to each question.

1. Alginates:

a) Stimulate tissue growth
b) Are derived from brown seaweed
c) Absorb up to 20 times its weight
d) Have antimicrobial properties 1 and 2 1 and 4 2 and 3 3 and 4 2 and 4

2. Alginates are indicated for:

a) Diabetic leg ulcers
b) Tunneling wounds and wounds with moderate to heavy exudate
c) Third degree burns
d) Skin grafts and donor sites

3. An advantage of an alginate is:

a) The wound bed becomes dehydrated
b) It can be used with a topical agent
c) To prevent infections
d) The facilitation of autolytic debridement

4. Silver is activated from the dressing to the wound’s surface based on the:

a) Specific type of bacteria in the wound
b) Amount of exudate and bacteria in the wound
c) Depth of the wound and pain felt
d) Odor, inflammation and swelling
e) Number of radiation treatments

5. Gauze products containing antibacterial properties have been designed to provide a barrier to specific organisms in addition to other actions.

a) True
b) False

6. Select antimicrobial dressings _________ be used under compression such as stockings, wraps, or Unna’s boot.

a) Cannot
b) Can

7. A disadvantage of an antimicrobial dressing is:

a) Adherence to the wound
b) Rash and itching at the wound
c) Development of resistant organisms not yet known
d) The ineffectiveness with dry eschar

8. Autologous skin grafts are permanent covers from:

a) Another human (cadaver)
b) Bioengineered skin
c) Stem cells from a placenta
d) The individual’s body

9. A xenograft may be porcine or bovine and is:

a) Permanent
b) Temporary

10. This bioengineered skin substitute is derived from human neonatal fibroblasts of the foreskin that may contain metabolically active or regenerative components:

a) Human-derived allografts
b) Allogenic matrixes
c) Composite matrixes
d) Acellular matrixesB

11. Fish skin is highly porous, vascularized and populated by the patient’s own cells, ultimately converted into living tissue. It is applied scaly side up and is permanently applied to the wound.

a) True
b) False

12. Collagen is best described as:

a) An abundant protein
b) A water based gel
c) Fibrous and insoluble
d) Containing gelatin, cellulose and pectin 1 and 2 2 and 4 1 and 3 4 only

13. Collagens are not recommended for:

a) Tunneling wounds
b) Third-degree burns
c) Skin grafts and donor sites
d) Red or yellow wounds

14. DermaCol 100 is contraindicated for use on patients with a known allergy or sensitivity to:

a) Penicillin
b) Collagen or silver
c) Shellfish
d) Bovine-derived materials
e) An ovine source

15. This feature is present over the entire composite dressing pad and extends out into the adhesive border:

a) Physical bacterial barrier
b) Absorptive layer
c) Nonadherent properties
d) Enzymatic ointment

16. An advantage of a composite is that it:

a) Prevents infection
b) Molds well
c) Forms a gel
d) Can be used under compression

17. The disadvantage of a composite dressing is:

a) A secondary dressing is required
b) The nonadherent component
c) A border of intact skin is required to anchor the dressing
d) Wound assessment is difficult

18. OPSITE Post Op Composite dressing has no contraindications.

a) True
b) False

19. Stratasorb is a four-layer composite island dressing that consists of a nonadherent wound contact layer, and absorbent soaker, a nonwoven adhesive border and a(n):

a) Nonperforated film coating
b) Layer that in nonocclusive and cut to exact size
c) Effective silver barrier that lasts up to 7 days
d) Waterproof, bacteria-resistant outer layer

20. Contact layers:

a) Are changed with each dressing change
b) Allow exudate to pass to a secondary dressing
c) Are recommended for shallow wounds
d) Are used on arterial bleeds

21. A disadvantage of contact layers is:

a) Staining of the skin
b) Dehydration of the wound bed
c) The requirement of a secondary wound dressing
d) Topical medications and wound fillers cannot be used

22. ComfiTel is a silicone wound dressing with a porous mesh design which allows frequent dressing changes and protection from wound trauma.

a) True
b) False

23. An advantage of a Silflex Silicone Contact Layer is:

a) A moist environment is maintained
b) It can be cut to size
c) It can be left in place for seven days
d) Collagen is replaced

24. Collagenase Santyl Ointment possesses the unique ability to:

a) Replace collagen in burned areas
b) Form granulation tissue
c) Digest collagen in necrotic tissue
d) Minimize scarring

25. Foam dressings:

a) Help debride a wound
b) Are waterproof and impermeable to bacteria
c) Reduce pain and inflammation
d) Are nonlinting and absorbent

26. An advantage of foam is:

a) The broad range of antibacterial properties
b) Providing thermal insulation
c) A secondary dressing is not required
d) An application of topical ointment enhances healing

27. All hydrophilic foam dressings have the common contraindication of not using the dressing on:

a) Heavily bleeding wounds
b) Diabetic ulcers
c) Burns
d) Pressure ulcers

28. The Aquacel Foam Pro Wound Dressing has a central absorbent pad which should be _____ _____ larger than the wound area.

a) 1 inch
b) 1 cm
c) 1 ˝ inches
d) 2 cm

29. The Hydrofera Blue Ready Antibacterial Foam Dressing should be changed:

a) Every day
b) In the morning
c) If the dressing turns white
d) At the nurse’s discretion

30. The Mepilex Absorbent Foam Dressing

a) Can be stretched to cover a wound
b) May be used with hydrogen peroxide
c) Can be used under compression
d) May be cut to fit the wound 1 and 3 2 and 4 3 only 3 and 4

31. Optifoam dressings are contraindicated for:

a) Third-degree burns
b) Heavily draining wounds
c) Donor sites
d) Pressure ulcers

32. The PolyMem and PolyMemMax Film Adhesive Dressings can best be described as:

a) Being activated by moisture
b) Delivering odor management
c) Providing pain relief
d) Having an intelligent backing that allows excess fluid to evaporate
e) Having a cooling effect when refrigerated 1, 2, and 3 1, 3, and 4 3, 4, and 5 2, 3, and 4 1, 3, and 5

33. PolyMem Dressings:

a) Are changed when the indicator color becomes lighter
b) Require a secondary dressing
c) Adhere to the wound bed
d) Do not shed fibers

34. In vitro testing shows the transparent film on the 3M Tegaderm Silicon Foam Dressing provides a viral barrier from viruses 27 mm in diameter or larger while the dressing remains intact without leakage.

a) True
b) False

35. Hydrocolloids are manufactured in various shapes and forms:

a) And absorb 10 times its weight
b) With an “intelligent” layer
c) And are especially designed for joints
d) Including wafers, pastes and powders

36. A disadvantage of hydrocolloids is they:

a) Require a secondary dressing
b) May be difficult to secure
c) Are not recommended for wounds with exposed tendon or bone
d) Cause maceration

37. When applying a DermaFilm dressing:

a) Apply a barrier film first
b) The packaged dressing should be warmed in the hands
c) The dressing should not be cut
d) Allow cream or ointment to dry first

38. The DuoDermControl Gel Formula Dressing is an adhesive wound contact dressing and aids in autolytic debridement.

a) True
b) False

39. This type of Exuderm is used to protect against skin breakdown or to dress superficial wounds:

a) Exuderm Satin
b) Exuderm Odorshield
c) Exuderm LP (low profile)
d) Exuderm RCD (regulated colloidal dispersion)

40. This dressing must be removed before radiation therapy:

a) Replicare
b) Replicare Thin
c) Replicare Ultra

41. All Restore Hydrocolloid dressings include a disposable wound measuring guide.

a) True
b) False

42. The Triad Hydrophilic Wound Dressing is:

a) Ideal for third degree burns and surgical wounds
b) Impregnated with growth factors and stem cells
c) A zinc oxide hydrophilic paste
d) Contraindicated for infected wounds 1 and 2 3 and 4 2 and 4 3 only

43. Tegaderm Hydrocolloid Dressings have an outer film which:

a) Absorbs exudate
b) Conforms to surrounding skin
c) Is breathable and reduces skin maceration
d) Keeps contaminates out
e) Requires a picture frame border to allow for easy application

44. Hydrogels are water or glycerin based and:

a) Prevent maceration
b) Cannot absorb large amounts of exudate
c) Are purchased over the counter
d) Require sterile technique when applied

45. A disadvantage of a hydrogel dressing is:

a) It may be difficult to secure
b) Pain relief is not obtained
c) Infection cannot be present
d) Stinging during application is common

46. Anasept Antimicrobial Skin and Wound Gel can be described as:

a) Being compatible with products containing silver
b) Approved for over the counter use
c) Having a shelf life of 2 years when stored at normal room temperature
d) Having no adverse or untoward reactions in 10 years
e) Reacting in a hyperbaric chamber 1, 2, and 5 2 and 3 2 and 4 1, 3, and 5 2, 3, and 4

47. Carrasyn products are contraindicated if a patient has a sensitivity to:

a) Silver
b) Oak extract
c) Aloe vera extract
d) Glycerin

48. Which of the following is 65% glycerin and absorbs five times its own weight in exudate:

a) DermaGauze
b) DermaGel Hydrogel Sheet
c) DermaSyn

49. _______ is a main component in every fat molecule and is a natural moisturizing agent:

a) Lanolin
b) Oil
c) Sterols
d) Glycerin

50. Gold Dust:

a) Absorbs 100 times its own weight
b) Is indicated for small wounds
c) Is mixed with 30 cc of water, then applied
d) Causes maceration 1 and 3 1 and 4 2 and 3 2 only

51. Hydrogel contains which of the following:

a) Collagenase, lanolin, silicone and water
b) Lotion, long and short peptides and calcium alginate
c) Aloe vera, amino acids, vitamins and enzymes
d) Hyaluronic acid, proteoglycans, water and electrolytes

52. Prontosan Wound Gel X is not for use:

a) On third-degree burns
b) On dry wounds or heavily bleeding wounds
c) Near the eyes or ears
d) On mucosal ulcerations

53. Skintegrity Amorphous Hydrogel irrigates easily from the wound bed due to:

a) Less viscosity
b) A greaseless formulation
c) The addition of polymers
d) The high glycerin and water content

54. Negative-Pressure Wound Therapy also provides for automated instillation and wound irrigation.

a) True
b) False

55. When using the Prevena Incision Management System and removing the dressing, it is important to:

a) Remove the dressing across the sutures
b) Change the dressing daily
c) away from the center
d) Remove the dressing in-line with the sutures

56. When applying foam for use with V.A.C. therapy it is important to:

a) Not cut the foam over the wound
b) Pack foam tightly in the wound
c) Overlap the foam onto intact skin
d) Chart the number of pieces of foam used 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 4 3 and 4

57. This type of V.A.C. dressing is a poly vinyl alcoholfoam ideal for use in tunnels and undermining.It is premoistened with sterile water and requires a minimum pressure setting of -125 mm Hg:

a) Granufoam
b) Granufoam Silver c.
c) Simplace
d) Granufoam Bridge Dressing e.
e) Whitefoam

58. Negative pressure wound therapy consists of automated controlled delivery to and removal of a topical wound solution from the wound bed.

a) True
b) False

59. Speciality absorptive dressings contain:

a) A silicon contact layer to speed up exudate absorption
b) Absorbent cellulose, cotton or rayon
c) Special features to promote vertical drainage into the dressing

60. The Sofsorb Wound Dressing:

a) Can be used wet or dry to treat various wounds
b) Is placed in wound cavities
c) Has autolytic debriding qualities
d) Is sterile and cut to fit the wound bed

61. Therahoney:

a) Is a sterile product
b) Contains activated charcoal to decrease odor
c) Has a sugar level of 87%
d) Is available in gel, sheets, ribbon or foam 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 4 3 and 4

62. Transparent films:

a) Absorb drainage
b) Allow for wound observation
c) Can be used on fragile skin
d) Retain moisture 1 and 2 2 and 3 3 and 4 2 and 4

63. DermaView Dressings can be easily removed by

a) True
b) False

64. The DxWound utilizes a swab for sample collection. Results of the microbial environment are available:

a) One business day after receipt of the specimen
b) Immediately
c) After 24 hours in incubation

65. Both Protect and Signal Fecal Management Systems are contraindicated for pediatric patients and for no more than _______ consecutive days.

a) 7
b) 14
c) 21
d) 29

66. The Tennant Biomodulator Plus is similar to a TENS unit, but breaks the pain cycle. It cannot be used on persons:

a) Younger than 21 years of age
b) With a pacemaker, defibrillator or other implanted electronic device
c) Who have chronic pain
d) To temporarily mask pain