Immunity, Infectious Diseases,and Pandemics — What You Can Do

Self-Study Examination

Instructions: After studying the text answer the following true/false or multiple choice questions.  Remember, there's only one answer to each question.

1. The two basic types of leukocytes are phagocytes and lymphocytes.

a) True
b) False

2. Where do stem cells originate?

a) lymphoid tissue
b) bone marrow
c) T-Cells
d) circulatory system

3. What is the first line of defense in the immune system?

a) macrophages
b) microphages
c) bacteriophages
d) monophages

4. What cells kill viruses and are considered to be the scavengers of the immune system?

a) BK Cells
b) TK Cells
c) NK Cells
d) all of the above

5. If a spider bites someone who has never been bitten before he/she will experience what type of immune response?

a) IGm
b) nonspecific
c) specific
d) precise

6. A mast cell is responsible for:

a) mastication
b) allergic response
c) compliment response
d) coagulation

7. Asthma is considered to be:

a) nonspecific immunity
b) stem-cell mediated
c) an autoimmune response
d) mediated B cells

8. Cell-mediated immunity is sometimes referred to as:

a) antibody insensitivity
b) delayed R-cell response
c) delayed hypersensitivity
d) enhanced-antibody response

9. Stress can affect the helper T cells, suppressor T cells, and CD4 cells.

a) True
b) False

10. An individual who has had chickenpox is immune to getting chickenpox again, and this is an example of:

a) active immunity
b) adaptive immunity
c) acquired immunity
d) all the above
e) none of the above

11. Delayed hypersensitivity is involved in the inflammatory response known as:

a) AMI (antigen-mediated immunity)
b) BMI (B-Cell mediated immunity)
c) CMI (cell-mediated immunity)
d) VMI (viral-mediated immunity)

12. Psychoneuroimmunology involves the interaction between the nervous system, immune system and psyche.

a) True
b) False

13. Different sets of neuropeptides are triggered when one is depressed which affect the immune system.

a) True
b) False

14. Excessive sugar consumption leads to a loss of:

a) vitamin A
b) zinc
c) vitamin B
d) selenium

15. Depression and paranoia can be aided through taking vitamin C.

a) True
b) False

16. Vitamin E can enhance the production of

a) B cells
b) NK cells
c) both of the above
d) none of the above

17. A recent report indicates that Vitamin D can be helpful for all the following except:

a) MS
b) osteoporosis
c) inhibit inflammation
d) skin cancer

18. What B vitamin is essential to immune-system health?

a) B2
b) B12
c) B4
d) B6

19. Gingko biloba has been linked to the enhancement of:

a) coagulation
b) urinary output
c) blood flow in the brain, memory
d) none of the above

20. Polyphenols (flavonoids) are:

a) found in green tea
b) more potent antioxidants than C and E
c) enhancers of oxidation of LDL cholesterol
d) all of the above

21. Which of these vaccines is most likely to mutate to virulence?

a) live vaccines
b) sub-unit vaccines
c) RNA recombinants
d) inactive vaccines

22. What are some of the factors contributing to the emergence of diseases?

a) climate changes
b) international travel and commerce
c) population growth, poverty, deforestation
d) all of the above
e) none of the above

23. A pathogen is a disease-producing organism.

a) True
b) False

24. Helminths are not considered to be pathogenic microbes.

a) True
b) False

25. A fly is considered to be a:

a) biologic vector
b) mechanical vector
c) invasive vector
d) non-invasive vector

26. Zoonisis affects:

a) cattle and cats
b) flies and mosquitoes
c) fleas and worms
d) none of the above

27. Disease-transmitting arthropods vectors include:

a) fleas
b) ticks
c) lice
d) only b and c
e) all of the above

28. Lyme disease is spread by:

a) people
b) ticks
c) lice
d) flies

29. Fungi can cause disease especially when:

a) exhaled
b) touched
c) inhaled
d) combined with a parasite

30. Yeasts, spores, and molds are:

a) lethal
b) produce disease
c) fungi
d) none of the above

31. Cryptosporidium is a protozoan.

a) True
b) False

32. Schistosomiasis is a disease caused by:

a) roundworms
b) square worms
c) flatworms
d) parasitic worm

33. Bacteria have a nucleus.

a) True
b) False

34. Which is true?

a) Bacteria are notorious for cholera, tuberculosis, and gonorrhea.
b) Viruses are notorious for cholera, tuberculosis, and gonorrhea.

35. All of the following are food borne bacteria except:

a) E. coli O157:H7
b) campylobacter
c) salmonella
d) strep A

36. What is the most common bacteria that causes diarrheal disease in the USA?

a) C. Jejuni
b) B Jejoni
c) C. coli
d) E Jejonie

37. The enterovirulence of E.Coli is caused by:

a) E coli 0157:H7
b) E coli 0155:H6
c) E coli 0159:H8
d) E coli 0159: H7

38. Salmonellosis is on the rise and it is a:

a) virus found in food
b) virus found in water
c) bacteria found in food
d) bacteria found in the air

39. All of the following are true of shigellosis except:

a) found only in the USA
b) human-to-human spread
c) symptoms include bloody or watery diarrhea, 2 days after exposure
d) fever

40. The three most common bacteria are:

a) campylobacter
b) salmonella
c) E. coli O157:H7
d) all of the above
e) none of the above

41. Drooping eyelids and slurred speech are symptoms mostly associated with which foodborne bacteria?

a) salmonella
b) campylobacter
c) botulism
d) typhus

42. Pertussis is on the rise today and it is most contagious in:

a) stage one
b) stage two
c) stage three
d) stage four

43. A differential clinical symptom of pertussis usually involves:

a) choking
b) drooping eyelids
c) vomiting with coughing
d) none of the above
e) all of the above

44. Clostridium difficile is considered to be one of the most common nosocomial infections in the world. The spore is shed by:

a) oral secretions
b) feces
c) wind
d) none of the above

45. Glanders can be transmitted between people and is caused by the virus glandera viderae.

a) True
b) False

46. Mad cow disease is thought to be caused by:

a) virion
b) viroid
c) virus
d) prion

47. Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) is a complication of:

a) E coli
b) tuberculosis
c) typhoid
d) typhus

48. What is the most dangerous spreader of disease today?

a) chicken
b) mosquito
c) bird
d) droplets

49. Which virus can live in swimming pools even with adequate chlorine levels and creates symptoms of dehydration, fever, nausea, and stomach cramps?

a) prion
b) anthrax
c) cryptosporidium
d) trypanosomiasis

50. Black death was called bubonic plague when it was a septicemic plague because it was:

a) a virus that created black patches due to bleeding under the skin
b) a bacteria that created black patches due to bleeding under the skin
c) prion, which created black patches due to bleeding under the skin
d) mosquito, which created black patches due to bleeding under the skin

51. Fever, joint pain, shivering — these are symptoms responsible for 25% of African deaths today and are caused by:

a) plague
b) dengue fever
c) malaria
d) bird flu

52. Rickettsias are microorganisms classified between bacteria and viruses characterized by high fever and rash.

a) True
b) False

53. RNA viruses have a very high mutation rate; hepatitis B is classified as an RNA virus.

a) True
b) False

54. SARS is thought to be caused by:

a) corona virus
b) Norwalk virus
c) bunyavirus
d) calicivirus

55. Norovirus, also called Norwalk virus, is spread easily via:

a) fecal oral route
b) air droplets
c) spores
d) all of the above
e) sone of the above

56. Viral hemorrhagic fevers are all simple RNA viruses with lipid envelopes.

a) True
b) False

57. VHFs are caused by what families?

a) arenaviridae
b) bunyaviridae
c) filoviridae
d) flaviviridae
e) all of the above

58. The differential diagnosis for VHFs involve:

a) abnormal EKG's
b) exposure to TB
c) diffuse mucosal or dermal bleeding
d) lab test
e) c and d

59. West Nile and Hepatitis C are caused by:

a) retrovirus
b) rotarivirus
c) filovirus
d) flavivirus

60. Arboviruses emerging today comprise more than 100 diseases. They are most often transmitted by:

a) rodent droplets
b) ticks or mosquitoes
c) dog bites
d) birds

61. Influenza viruses are caused most often by:

a) orthomyxoviruses
b) picornaviruses
c) rhinovirus
d) coxsackie

62. Today there are more than 40,000,000 people affected with HIV. HIV is classified as:

a) rotarivirus
b) retrovirus
c) filovirus
d) orthomyxovirus

63. Malaria is considered to be:

a) epidemic
b) endemic
c) pandemic
d) exodemic

64. The avian flu is in the initial phases of the pandemic alert phase.

a) True
b) False

65. The stomach flu is caused by:

a) N5H1
b) N4H2
c) H3N1
d) none of the above
e) all of the above

66. Antigenic shift occurs with influenza:

a) A, B, and C
b) A and B
c) B and C
d) A only

67. H5NI can incubate up to 17 days before showing symptoms.

a) True
b) False

68. Polio was genetically created in a test tube from Internet instructions in 2002.

a) True
b) False

69. HVFs have been classified as what bioweapon category according to the CDC?

a) Category A
b) Category B
c) Category C
d) Category D

70. BSL in a level one access is heavily restricted.

a) True
b) False

71. BioWar agents could come as toxins, bacteria or viruses. Among the toxins are:

a) ricin
b) anthrax
c) smallpox
d) pertussis

72. Children are particularly vulnerable to aerosolized biological attacks or contagious disease. School nurses should be trained in disease surveillance and have a well-executed response plan.

a) True
b) False

73. Plague, cholera, tularemia, brucellosis, and Q fever are possible Biowar agents.

a) True
b) False

74. High fever, malaise, prostration, headache, backache, and rash after 12 to 14 days of exposure describe:

a) Q-Fever
b) measles
c) smallpox
d) bubonic plague

75. Which of the following diseases has an incubation period of up to 40 days?

a) smallpox
b) monkeypox
c) Q Fever
d) staphylococcal enterotoxin B

76. Flu strains are named after their types of hemagglutinin and neuraminidase surface proteins. There are 15 different hemagglutinins subtypes to date, and 9 different neuraminidase subtypes that have been found among influenza A viruses in wild birds.

a) True
b) False

77. When patients experience upper airway and pulmonary symptoms in a setting of a known or suspected mass casualty incident, you may suspect:

a) viral encephalitis
b) alphavirus
c) ricin
d) EEE

78. The major components of biocontrol are: isolation, traffic control, and sanitation.

a) True
b) False

79. Emergency rooms suddenly spike within a 24-hour period. All Chicago hospitals are full. Patients present with a cough, difficulty breathing, chest pain, fluid in their lungs, rapid heart rate, headache, nausea, and vomiting.
These symptoms might sugges

a) SEB poisoning (inhalation)
b) EBS poisoning (respiratory)
c) plague (release)
d) ricin

80. Anthrax is not contagious.

a) True
b) False

81. Malaria is present in India, Brazil, Thailand, Afghanistan, Cambodia, China, Sri Lanka, Vietnam, Indonesia, and Florida.

a) True
b) False

82. There is evidence to show that H5N1 grows first in the digestive tract and may present as diarrhea a week prior to other symptoms.

a) True
b) False

83. The classification of BSL 1 through 4 means:

a) B lymph, staphylococcal level grading system
b) biosafety lab grading system
c) biologic simulation levels
d) biologic spherical level

84. GI toxicity consisting of anorexia, nausea and vomiting, abdominal cramping, and watery and/or bloody diarrhea after seeing a yellow rain would most likely be:

a) anthrax exposure
b) trichothecene mycotoxin exposure
c) C botulinum
d) H5N1

85. Humans can be infected with influenza types A, B, and C.

a) True
b) False

86. Influenza and some avian viruses can also cause serious disease and death in wild birds, which is generally found in influenza strains A, B, and C.

a) True
b) False

87. Nipah is a zoonotic emerging virus that can be weaponized and is on the CDC list.

a) True
b) False

88. What zoonotic virus causes a 50% mortality rate, is believed to come from pigs, has no treatment and progresses to encephalitis within 18 days?

a) H5N1
b) dengue fever
c) Nipah virus
d) West Nile

89. Swine influenza is caused most commonly by:

a) H2N8
b) H1N1
c) N1H2
d) H5N2

90. In May 2005, the U.S. Secretary of HHS created a multi-agency, National Influenza Pandemic Preparedness and Response Task Group.

a) True
b) False

91. In the event of a biological or chemical attack on the United States, school nurses could be among the first health-care professionals to recognize the event and respond.

a) True
b) False

92. Where H5N1 infects poultry farms the current method of abatement is to:

a) cull
b) vaccinate
c) use antibiotics in the feed
d) none of the above
e) all of the above

93. The goals of disaster preparedness are to anticipate, mitigate, and rehabilitate.

a) True
b) False

94. The most critical action of pandemic preparedness and response is:

a) individual action
b) government action
c) public health mandates
d) hospital action

95. Warning signals when clusters of patients with clinical symptoms of influenza, closely related in time and place indicate:

a) pandemic
b) endemic
c) epidemic
d) human-to-human transmission

96. A disease that is unusual and inconsistent in geographic area and distribution, dead animals of multiple species, illness limited to a localized geographic areas would be most likely considered as:

a) MRSA
b) influenza
c) a biologic agent
d) none of the above

97. Enterococci are the third most common cause of nosocomial infections in ICUs.

a) True
b) False

98. In planning for a pandemic all the following need to be addressed:
¾ surveillance and laboratory issues
¾ communication
¾ community services
¾ medical care
¾ vaccines and drugs

a) True
b) False

99. Influenza B viruses are normally found only in humans and have no subtype.

a) True
b) False

100. Chlorination is the safest method of treating water.

a) True
b) False