Emergency Nursing

Self-Study Examination

Instructions: After studying the text answer the following true/false or multiple choice questions.  Remember, there's only one answer to each question.

1. An emergency patient with Level IV acuity would require immediate marshaling of medical and nursing resources.

a) True
b) False

2. Of the two types of migraine headaches, classic migraine is generally more prevalent.

a) True
b) False

3. Most migraine conditions begin in adolescence.

a) True
b) False

4. Proper diagnosis of migraine headache requires a thorough physical examination followed by lab studies.

a) True
b) False

5. Narcotic analgesics are commonly recommended in the management of migraines.

a) True
b) False

6. One of the most widely used drugs for the treatment of migraines is Ergotamine, except when a patient experiences migraine headaches more than twice a month.

a) True
b) False

7. Because ethanol is distributed throughout the body to all tissues based on their water content, persons with greater body mass can ingest proportionately higher amounts of ethanol and still maintain lower intravascular and body tissue concentrations.

a) True
b) False

8. All patients who experience alcohol withdrawal syndrome go through four distinct stages of increasing severity.

a) True
b) False

9. Tongue biting and loss of sphincter control are less common in alcohol withdrawal seizures than in idiopathic seizures.

a) True
b) False

10. Which of the following statements is true?
  1. Seizures can cause hypoglycemia.
  2. Hypoglycemia can cause seizures.
  3. Both A & B.
  4. None of the above.

a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d

11. For a patient with drug overdose, protecting the patient’s airway is the most immediate response of the ED nursing staff.

a) True
b) False

12. Use of activated charcoal is the most frequent and effective method for poison control in the ED patient.

a) True
b) False

13. If two individuals carrying the sickle-cell trait mate, their children will have a one in four chance of having sickle-cell anemia.

a) True
b) False

14. Risk factor for acute myocardial infarction is about the same for men and women.

a) True
b) False

15. A person with a normal ECG and cardiac enzymes may still have symptoms of acute myocardial infarction (AMI).

a) True
b) False

16. If thrombolytic therapy is administered within the first four to six hours after the onset of chest pain, there is a good potential for reversal or minimalization of myocardial damage in a patient.

a) True
b) False

17. Thrombolytic agent streptokinase carries the possibility of allergic reaction because of its “foreign” substance.

a) True
b) False

18. Death caused by cocaine toxicity usually occurs from failure of the patient to breathe or from progressive hyperthermia.

a) True
b) False

19. The effects of cocaine can be more prolonged or more toxic in people who abuse alcohol and have poor nutritional habits.

a) True
b) False

20. A low B.P. is a contraindication for administering intravenous morphine to a patient.

a) True
b) False

21. Preexcitation syndrome is ruled out in a young man with no history of coronary heart disease although he may have a history of rapid heartbeats.

a) True
b) False

22. All of the following factors contribute to the development of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT):
Family history, high caffeine intake, smoking, over-exertion and emotional stress.

a) True
b) False

23. If a patient is wheezing, it should be assumed that the patient has asthma.

a) True
b) False

24. Asthma attacks are almost never life threatening and are generally assigned triage acuity levels of I or II.

a) True
b) False

25. Extreme physical activity is the primary cause of spontaneous pneumothorax.

a) True
b) False

26. The classic signs of a moderately sized pulmonary embolus include unexplained dyspnea, tachypnea, tachycardia, and restlessness.

a) True
b) False

27. Smoke inhalation is the leading cause of death within the first 24 hours following exposure to fire.

a) True
b) False

28. Anyone treated for CO poisoning should routinely be treated for cyanide toxicity as well.

a) True
b) False

29. Patients with carboxyhemoglobin levels of 40% or more should be treated with hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT) even if this means transport to another facility.

a) True
b) False

30. An elevated serum amylase is exclusively diagnostic of pancreatitis.

a) True
b) False

31. Patients who have used excessive alcohol for five to ten years are prone to chronic pancreatitis.

a) True
b) False

32. Morphine is the recommended drug to relieve pain in a patient suffering from an attack of pancreatitis.

a) True
b) False

33. Any patient presenting with an altered level of consciousness should immediately have a finger stick blood glucose level checked.

a) True
b) False

34. Only Type II diabetic patients are at risk for hypoglycemia from their use of insulin.

a) True
b) False

35. All of the following factors may be the cause of hypoglycemia in a particular patient: Type and amount of insulin; the sight of administration; diet; and, eating and exercise habits of the patient.

a) True
b) False

36. The presence of hyperglycemia alone is sufficient to establish the diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).

a) True
b) False

37. When in doubt about the reason for a patient’s decreased level of consciousness, treat as if it were caused by hyperglycemia and administer 25g of glucose.

a) True
b) False

38. In a patient diagnosed with DKA, insulin therapy may have to be continued even after hyperglycemia has been reversed.

a) True
b) False

39. Urinary calculi are more likely to occur in persons living in the Southeast or the Southwest than in any other part of the country.

a) True
b) False

40. Struvite stone is 3 to 4 times more prevalent in men than in women, whereas calcium oxalate stone occurs more frequently in women than in men.

a) True
b) False

41. Uric acid stones are commonly found in men especially Jewish males.

a) True
b) False

42. Between the two new procedures for removal of kidney stones, PUL and ESWL, the former is likely to become more popular because of its lower cost.

a) True
b) False

43. The use of antibiotics is more common than surgical incision and drainage method of treating abscesses.

a) True
b) False

44. The patient who has sustained significant soft tissue injury is a candidate for developing neurovascular compromise.

a) True
b) False

45. Attending to a victim of hypothermia, first priority should be to administer pharmacological and electrical therapies in the field.

a) True
b) False

46. The definition of hypothermia is a body core temperature that is less than 25 degrees Centigrade.

a) True
b) False

47. A victim of hypothermia whose core body temperature does not drop below 90 degree Fahrenheit has a very good chance of complete recovery.

a) True
b) False

48. While treating a victim of hypothermia a major complication resulting from active rewarming of a patient is a continued fall in body temperature after rewarming maneuvers have been initiated. This phenomenon occurs with rapid emersion cooling as well as

a) True
b) False

49. Bee stings and penicillin are the two major causes of anaphylaxis in humans.

a) True
b) False

50. As long as a victim of bee sting shows no systemic symptoms of anaphylaxis, the individual is in no life-threatening emergency.

a) True
b) False

51. Testicular torsion and epididymitis have very similar symptoms and both are commonly found in men who are sexually active.

a) True
b) False

52. The patient with testicular torsion often has a testis that is in a transverse or horizontal position, while the patient with epididymitis has a testis in a vertical position.

a) True
b) False

53. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a common complication for women resulting from exposure to a sexually-transmitted disease (STD).

a) True
b) False

54. According to one long-term study, 25% of all women who had PID were unable to conceive children during the subsequent ten years.

a) True
b) False

55. Use of IUD is the most common cause of ectopic pregnancy.

a) True
b) False

56. A patient who has a positive beta-HCG and positive intrauterine pregnancy is likely to have an additional ectopic pregnancy.

a) True
b) False

57. Primary angle-closure glaucoma is more common than primary open-angle glaucoma.

a) True
b) False

58. Every child who presents in an emergency room should be thoroughly examined to rule out possible abuse or neglect, regardless of the complaint.

a) True
b) False

59. Most states by law require a report to the appropriate agency only after a definitive diagnosis of child abuse or neglect has been established.

a) True
b) False

60. A minor child presented in the emergency room can be hospitalized only with the consent of the parents.

a) True
b) False

61. A person who has been abused as a child and may have observed other means of violence in the family is more likely to engage in abuse of the elderly.

a) True
b) False

62. An elderly person who is otherwise competent can be hospitalized against his or her wishes for medical treatment.

a) True
b) False

63. White females have the highest percentage of completed suicides in the general population.

a) True
b) False

64. All of the following characteristics have been known to predispose a patient to object-related suicide attempts (parasuicide):
  1. Alcoholic parents
  2. Unstable family life
  3. History of physical or sexual abuse
  4. Financial probl

a) True
b) False

65. Patients with bipolar disorder, manic phase, are more at risk for aggressive behavior than other patients with major mental illnesses.

a) True
b) False

66. Bipolar disorder is a life-long problem, requiring ongoing psychiatric care and treatment.

a) True
b) False

67. Smith’s model includes the following four phases that an aggressive patient goes through: activation, escalation, assault, and recovery and stabilization.

a) True
b) False

68. Stress may result in labile BP changes in a patient in which there is a diastolic BP greater than 90 mm Hg in an individual who usually has a diastolic BP less than 90 mm Hg.

a) True
b) False

69. If a person shows no adverse symptoms due to high blood pressure there is no need to continue with the drug therapy.

a) True
b) False

70. In the United States HBP is equally prevalent among blacks and whites.

a) True
b) False

71. An HBP patient who has been prescribed multiple dose therapy is more likely to adhere to the drug regimen than the one who has been prescribed single does therapy.

a) True
b) False

72. The greatest challenge in nursing intervention of a patient suffering from high blood pressure lies in the education of the patient about this disease.

a) True
b) False

73. The first priority in nursing and medical management of the substance-abuse patient should be to establish a trusting, therapeutic relationship.

a) True
b) False

74. T4 cell count below 200 and emergence of opportunistic infections establish the diagnosis of AIDS.

a) True
b) False

75. A patient with a positive HIV test does not necessarily have AIDS.

a) True
b) False

76. A person who tests positive on ELISA test must undergo Western blot blood test to confirm a diagnosis of HIV.

a) True
b) False