Nursing Pharmacology

Self-Study Examination

Instructions: After studying the text answer the following true/false or multiple choice questions.  Remember, there's only one answer to each question.

1. How a drug is absorbed or excreted is called:

a) pharmacodynamics
b) pharmacotherapeutics
c) pharmacokinetics
d) drug interactions

2. What type of drug interaction occurs when two drugs produce the same effect?

a) additive effect
b) potentiation
c) increased absorption
d) decreased effect

3. Expected outcomes are defined as:

a) goals the patient and family ask you to accomplish
b) goals that are above the level the patient can realistically reach
c) goals that were met by the patient in the past
d) goals the patient should reach as a result of planned nursing interventions

4. Which effect is expected when using cholinergic agonists?

a) dry mouth
b) tachycardia
c) pupil dilation
d) increased bladder tone

5. Which drug would the nurse give to a patient experiencing symptomatic sinus bradycardia?

a) atropine
b) belladonna
c) digoxin
d) propanolol

6. Which finding indicates that a patient is having an adverse reaction to catecholamines?

a) nausea and vomiting
b) diarrhea
c) decreased glucose levels
d) palpitations

7. Which of the following drugs is a catecholamine?

a) dopamine
b) albuterol
c) prazosin
d) labetalol

8. Which noncatecholamine is dual-acting?

a) albuterol
b) isoetharine
c) ephedrine
d) terbutaline

9. Which drug causes toxicity in a patient taking beta-adrenergic blocker?

a) an antacid
b) Rifampin
c) a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug
d) digoxin

10. A 15-year-old patient has a tonic-clonic seizure disorder and is prescribed phenytoin. Which term best describes the absorption rate of oral phenytoin?

a) rapid
b) slow
c) erratic
d) moderate

11. An 11-year-old patient develops myoclonic seizures. Which potential adverse reaction makes it unlikely that valproate will be prescribed for this patient?

a) liver toxicity
b) CNS sedation
c) respiratory depression
d) hyperthermia

12. Anticonvulsants fall into several major classes, including:

a) anticholinergics
b) fluoroquinolones
c) succinimides
d) dopaminergics

13. A 48-year-old patient has been prescribed trihexyphenidyl for her Parkinson’s disease. Which adverse reaction to this drug can be dose-related?

a) excessive salivation
b) dryness of mouth
c) bradycardia
d) constipation

14. Which antiparkinsonian drug is associated with the on-off phenomenon and the wearing-off effect?

a) amantadine
b) benztropine
c) levodopa
d) pramipexole

15. The effectiveness of levodopa can be reduced when taking:

a) pyridoxine
b) amantadine
c) bromocriptine

16. Barbiturate anticonvulsants are effective in treating all of these seizure types, except:

a) partial seizures
b) tonic-clonic seizures
c) febrile seizures
d) absence seizures

17. How does the topical anesthetic benzocaine relieve sunburn pain?

a) It numbs the skin surface, decreasing the perception of pain.
b) It freezes the skin, which prevents nerve impulse transmission.
c) It blocks nerve impulse transmission by preventing nerve cell depolarization.
d) It occupies sites on specialized receptors, modifying the release of neurotransmitters.

18. Which adverse reaction is a patient most likely to experience after receiving general anesthesia for surgery?

a) nausea and vomiting
b) seizures
c) cyanosis
d) increased heart rate

19. Before administering buprenorphine hydrochloride, the nurse asks a patient if he has used opioids. Administering a mixed opioid agonist-antagonist to a patient dependent on opioid agonists may cause which reaction?

a) hypersensitivity reaction
b) constipation
c) urinary incontinence
d) withdrawal symptoms

20. The drug commonly prescribed to treat an opioid overdose is:

a) butorphanol
b) naloxone
c) pentazocine
d) nalbuphine

21. What are the most common adverse reactions to aspirin?

a) increased rate and depth of respirations
b) nausea, vomiting, and GI distress
c) dizziness and vision changes
d) bladder infection

22. Desflurane is which type of anesthetic?

a) general
b) local
c) topical
d) I.V.

23. A topical anesthetic can be used:

a) as an alternative to general anesthesia for an elderly or debilitated patient
b) to numb a mucosal surface before tube insertion
c) when anesthesia is needed for only a short period
d) to prevent or relieve pain in a specific area

24. A patient is receiving digoxin for treatment of atrial fibrillation. When you enter the room to give the medication, you find the patient irritable and complaining of nausea and blurred vision. She’s also disoriented to place and time. The most appropr

a) attempt to reorient the patient while helping her take the digoxin
b) return to the room later and see whether the patient will take the medication
c) withhold the digoxin and notify the prescriber about your assessment findings.
d) check the medication profile for possible drug interactions after giving the digoxin to the patient

25. A patient comes to the emergency department complaining of chest pains, which started one hour ago while he was mowing the lawn. Nitroglycerin was given sublingually as prescribed. Which of the following adverse reactions would be most likely to occur?

a) hypotension
b) dizziness
c) GI distress
d) headache

26. Which adverse reaction associated with ACE inhibitors is the most common and usually leads to disruption of therapy?

a) constipation
b) cough
c) sexual dysfunction
d) tachycardia

27. A patient is taking an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor. Which of the following tests should be performed at the start of therapy and periodically thereafter?

a) liver function
b) electrolyte levels
c) complete blood count
d) ECG

28. You’re instructing a patient with asthma about the use of bronchodilators. You should teach the patient:

a) to take the mediation 4 hours before exercise to prevent exercise- induced bronchospasm
b) to take only the specific drugs prescribed for acute bronchospasm, usually a short-acting beta 2-adrenergic agonist such as albuterol
c) to double the dose of the medication in the event of a missed dose
d) that long-acting beta 2 agonists, such as salmeterol, are effective in the treatment of acute asthma attacks

29. Which anticholinergic agent is used to treat patients with COPD?

a) atropine
b) guaifenesin
c) budesonide
d) ipratropium bromide

30. In addition to bronchitis and cystic fibrosis, acetylcysteine may also be used to treat:

a) acetaminophen overdose
b) allergic rhinitis
c) theophelline toxicity
d) Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

31. Which leukotriene modifier’s absorption is decreased by food and should be given one hour before or two hours after meals?

a) zileuton
b) montelukast
c) zafirlukast
d) nedocromil

32. A patient is taking calcium carbonate for peptic ulcer disease. You should monitor the patient for:

a) hypercalcemia
b) hypocalcemia
c) hyperkalemia
d) hypokalemia

33. Which adverse reaction is common and usually dose related in patients taking misoprostol?

a) diarrhea
b) nausea
c) vomiting
d) bloating

34. Which drug or drug type may interact with H2- receptor antagonist cimetidine?

a) hormonal contraceptives
b) antilipemic agents
c) digoxin
d) oral anticoagulants

35. A patient is admitted to the emergency department with salicylate poisoning. Which drug should the nurse anticipate giving the patient?

a) chlorpromazine
b) activated charcoal
c) magnesium citrate
d) docusate

36. Which drug is used to treat IBS in women whose primary bowel symptom is constipation?

a) Alosetron
b) Bisacodyl
c) Tegaserod
d) Docusate

37. Which administration method of parenteral iron helps avoid leakage into S.C. tissue?

a) Z-track method
b) I.M. into the deltoid
c) S.C. injection
d) intradermal injection

38. Which test should the nurse check in her assessment of a patient receiving heparin?

a) complete blood count
b) PTT
c) arterial blood gas
d) hemoglobin level

39. What’s the most common adverse reaction experienced with antiplatelet drugs?

a) nausea
b) joint pain
c) headache
d) bleeding

40. Which type of insulin would the nurse expect to administer to a patient with DKA?

a) regular
b) intermediate-acting
c) long-acting
d) ultra-long acting

41. Which drug or drug type would likely cause hyperglycemia if taken with glyburide?

a) procainamide
b) cimetidine
c) warfarin
d) thiazide diurectics

42. Which implementation step is appropriate for switching a patient from liothyronine therapy to levothyroxine therapy?

a) stop liothyronine before starting levothyroxine
b) start levothyroxine several days before stopping liothyronine
c) start levothyroxine several days after stopping liothyronine
d) give a supplemental I.V. thyroid drug in between liothyronine therapy and levothyroxine therapy

43. Which drug is typically prescribed for a patient with diabetes insipidus?

a) ADH
b) oxytocin
c) pitocin
d) corticotropin

44. A patient who’s taking estrogen and anticoagulants together is at increased risk for which condition?

a) hypertension
b) hypotension
c) bleeding
d) blood clots

45. Which benzodiazepine is used primarily to treat anxiety?

a) lorazepam
b) temazepam
c) triazolam
d) flurazepam

46. Which adverse reaction is common in the patient taking buspirone?

a) nausea
b) diarrhea
c) constipation
d) headache

47. Which food should the patient taking an MAO inhibitor avoid?

a) cheese
b) apples
c) bananas
d) beer

48. What’s an adverse reaction to aminoglycosides?

a) peripheral nerve toxicity
b) cardiotoxicity
c) hepatic toxicity
d) toxic megacolon

49. Which food should the patient receiving isoniazid therapy avoid?

a) red wine
b) chocolate
c) coffee
d) eggs

50. Which implementation step is appropriate for patient who’s taking zidovudine for an HIV infection?

a) anticipate the need for dosage adjustment for impaired hepatic function
b) administer the drug every 4 hours, around the clock
c) administer one dose daily
d) monitor the patient’s cardiac status

51. Which class of drugs suppresses immune response and reduces inflammation?

a) antihistamines
b) corticosteriods
c) immunosuppressants
d) uricosurics

52. During the nursing assessment, the patient states that he’s taking digoxin, furosemide, a tranquilizer, and amoxicillin. Which medication would cause a drug interaction with the antihistamine the physician prescribed?

a) digoxin
b) furosemide
c) tranquilizer
d) amoxicillin

53. The nurse is monitoring a patient receiving prednisone. For which adverse reaction should the nurse monitor the patient?

a) somnolence
b) hyperglycemia
c) hyperkalemia
d) hypoglycemia

54. The nurse is assessing a patient who’s receiving an immunosuppressant. The patient is hypotensive, experiencing chest pain, and tachycardic. These signs indicate an adverse reaction to which immunosuppressant?

a) Azathioprine
b) Cyclosporine
c) Thymoglobulin
d) Daclizumab

55. Which medication interacts with allopurinol?

a) oral anticoagulants
b) antihistamines
c) cardiac glycosides
d) antidiabetic agents

56. That patient is being administered nitrogen mustard chemotherapy and is taking antacids, hydrochlorothiazide, diphenhydramine, and diazepam. Which medication might cause a drug interaction with nitrogen mustards?

a) antacids
b) hydrochlorothiazide
c) diphenhydramine
d) diazepam

57. The nurse is observing the patient for adverse reactions to dacarbazine. Which adverse reaction may be caused by dacarbazine drug therapy?

a) rash
b) hypotension
c) flulike syndrome
d) tachycardia

58. Which action should the nurse perform before treatment with asparaginase?

a) monitoring blood pressure?
b) assessing ECG
c) obtaining allergy history
d) performing an intradermal skin test