Anxiety and Phobia Workbook

Self-Study Examination

Instructions: After studying the text answer the following true/false or multiple choice questions.  Remember, there's only one answer to each question.

1. Situational anxiety becomes phobic when:

a) you have a fear of dying
b) you avoid the situation
c) you feel out of touch with yourself
d) it “comes out of the blue”

2. This type of anxiety tends to build up gradually in response to encountering or thinking about a threatening situation:

a) situational anxiety
b) anxiety disorder
c) spontaneous anxiety
d) anticipatory anxiety

3. All of the following are true about anxiety disorders except:

a) they are more intense than normal anxiety
b) they last longer than normal anxiety
c) they are also referred to as limited-symptom attack
d) they lead to phobias that interfere with your life

4. The most common feature of agoraphobia is:

a) being far from home or far from a “safe person”
b) palpitations and shortness of breath
c) feeling of unreality as if you’re “not all there”
d) fear of dying

5. The most common social phobia is the fear of:

a) being watched at work
b) taking exams
c) using public toilets
d) public speaking

6. The underlying causes of generalized anxiety disorder are:

a) chemical imbalances
b) unknown
c) hereditary
d) self-imposed

7. Post-traumatic stress disorder was first identified:

a) during World War II
b) during Viet Nam War
c) during World War I
d) during the Cold War

8. A predisposing cause of an anxiety disorder is:

a) a personality type that causes you to be overly anxious
b) a high stress lifestyle
c) a medical condition
d) use of stimulants

9. Childhood experiences that might predispose you to develop a particular anxiety disorder include:
  1. parents that communicate an overly cautious view of the world
  2. parents that are overly critical
  3. parents that create emotional insecurit

a) all but 1
b) 2 and 3
c) all but 4
d) all of the above

10. When stress persists without let up over a period of time, such as months or years, it tends to accumulate and may lead to a psychological disorder.

a) True
b) False

11. Walter Cannon described a panic attack as:

a) voluntary muscle responses
b) the fight or flight response
c) your brain being overly sensitized
d) a response to cumulative stress

12. As one hypothesis states, an onset of panic attacks may be caused by:

a) an increase in norepinephrine
b) an overactive pituitary gland
c) a chemical imbalance
d) cumulative stress

13. The following can produce panic attacks or anxiety:
  1. a decrease in magnesium
  2. a decrease in calcium
  3. excessive secretion of the thyroid hormone
  4. withdrawal from alcohol

a) 1 and 2
b) all but 4
c) 3 only
d) all of the above

14. Phobias develop by two types of processes, which are:

a) conditioning and stress
b) conditioning and panic
c) conditioning and trauma
d) conditioning and fear

15. When you feel vaguely anxious without knowing why, it is called:

a) free-floating anxiety
b) fear-in-advance
c) muscle tension
d) worry

16. The single most effective strategy for reducing muscle tension, stress and anxiety is:

a) progressive relaxation
b) regular exercise
c) deep breathing
d) meditation

17. Self-talk has:

a) no effect on your state of anxiety
b) little effect on your state of anxiety
c) major effect on your state of anxiety
d) been proven to distract your mind from anxiety-producing situation

18. Learning to be assertive is a very important part of the recovery process, especially if you are dealing with:

a) panic disorders
b) acute and chronic anxiety
c) low self-esteem and cumulative stress
d) agoraphobia and social phobia

19. Going through a sequence of steps in imagination until the final step is visualized without any anxiety is called:

a) avoidance behavior
b) desensitization
c) self-motivation
d) real-life desensitization

20. Obsessive-compulsive disorder responds best to the combination of two specific interventions, which are:

a) physical interventions
b) emotional intervention and behavioral intervention
c) behavioral intervention and medication
d) interpersonal intervention and improving self-esteem

21. Regular practice of deep relaxation should:

a) be done daily for 20-30 minutes
b) decrease skin resistance and oxygen consumption
c) reduce general anxiety and alpha waves in the brain
d) increase analytical thinking

22. Hyperventilation results in:
  1. tingly sensations and a decrease in carbon dioxide
  2. disorientation and a feeling that lights are brighter and noise is louder
  3. a drop in blood pressure and sweatiness
  4. a release of adrenaline and a

a) 1, 2 and 4
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 and 4
d) all of the above

23. Long-term benefits of progressive muscle relaxation are called:

a) relaxation responses
b) relaxation sequences
c) physiological results
d) generalization effects

24. Downtime prevents stress from becoming cumulative and

a) should be done for 30 minutes a day
b) increases vasoconstriction of the blood vessels in the brain
c) is described as three kinds
d) is used as an adjunct to progressive muscle relaxation technique

25. When prioritizing tasks, an example of a task that cannot be delayed for a long time would be:

a) an essential task
b) an important task
c) a trivial task
d) a delegation task

26. If you are in a fitness program, you would likely be in good shape if you have an average resting pulse of:

a) 70-80 beats per minute
b) less than 60 beats per minute
c) 80-90 beats per minute
d) 60-70 beats per minute

27. If discharging aggression is an important reason to exercise, you might want to consider:

a) a competitive sport
b) yoga
c) baseball
d) weight lifting

28. When having a panic attack, there may be an intense desire to run away, fears of going crazy, dying, or doing something uncontrollable. These are called:

a) bodily symptoms
b) physiological reactions
c) psychological reactions
d) overt symptoms

29. What makes a panic attack unique and difficult to cope with is that intense bodily reactions:

a) can produce life-threatening health problems
b) occur in the absence of apparent danger
c) are exaggerated in younger people
d) must be treated immediately with medications

30. An increased focus on panic attack symptoms makes them more noticeable and easily magnified. This is described as:

a) panic
b) catastrophic interpretation
c) initiating circumstances
d) internalization

31. A very effective treatment for panic attacks involves voluntarily introducing bodily symptoms that can trigger panic. This is called:

a) a catastrophic thought
b) interceptive desensitization
c) a bodily symptom
d) visualization

32. Panic is caused by a sudden urge of:

a) adrenaline
b) norepinephrine
c) thyroxin
d) glucose and caffeine

33. The process of unlearning the connection between anxiety and a particular situation is called:

a) commitment
b) goal setting
c) desensitization
d) initial discomfort

34. When using imagery desensitization to resolve a phobic situation, you

a) repeatedly perform the task
b) write a letter
c) take antidepressants and tranquilizers
d) visualize yourself undertaking a task

35. By far, the favorite expression of the worrier is:

a) “That was stupid”.
b) “What if”
c) “I’ll never be able to”
d) “I have to”

36. You can tell you are overgeneralizing when your self-talk includes words such as:

a) never, always, nobody and everyone
b) “I feel tired all the time”
c) “What if this happens again”
d) failure, worthless and hopeless

37. The first step in breaking negative self-talk is to:

a) ask yourself, “Do I really want to do this to myself?”
b) slow yourself down
c) separate thoughts from feelings
d) “catch yourself in the act”

38. Deeper-lying beliefs or assumptions about life and ourselves in general are called all of the following except:

a) scripts
b) core beliefs
c) dysfunctional thoughts
d) life decisions

39. Two ways of reinforcing a new habit of thinking is:

a) listening and believing
b) repetition and feeling
c) recognition and empowerment
d) questioning and avoiding negatives

40. Common traits that tend to aggravate anxiety are all of the following except:

a) perfectionism
b) emotional sensitivity
c) need for approval
d) need for control

41. One possible outcome of chronic, cumulative stress is:

a) “Why was I so serious”
b) an increased release in hormones from the thyroid
c) life events become meaningless
d) the neuroendocrine regulatory systems in the brain malfunctions

42. Visualization uses imagery to do all of the following except:

a) decrease immune system functions
b) modify behavior
c) change the way you feel
d) modify your internal physiological state

43. Feelings are mediated both by the involuntary, autonomic nervous system and the brain, also known as:

a) the central nervous system
b) the head
c) the limbic system
d) part of the spinal cord

44. Examples of complex feelings would be:

a) anger and grief
b) eagerness and impatience
c) love and fear
d) joy and excitement

45. When feeling anger and fear at the same time, it is called:

a) contagious
b) a mixture
c) a simple feeling
d) an energizing feeling

46. The most common feeling to be withheld is:

a) love
b) sadness
c) impatience
d) anger

47. Examples of psychosomatic symptoms are:

a) headaches, high blood pressure and asthma
b) chronic fatigue and migraines
c) free-floating anxiety and depression
d) muscular pain and backache

48. Probably the best way to express feelings is to:

a) hit a large pillow
b) write a letter
c) share feelings with a supportive friend
d) chop wood

49. The most common form of anger that most of us experience is:

a) rage
b) frustration
c) anxiety
d) uneasiness

50. The first of two most important rules for communicating your feelings is:

a) not to blame the person you are addressing
b) the person you are addressing must possess active listening skills
c) use first person statements when discussing your feelings
d) the person you disclose your feelings to is willing to hear you out

51. A balance between aggressiveness and submissiveness is:

a) self awareness
b) manipulation
c) assertiveness
d) a commanding demeanor

52. The chapter lists 25 items in the “Personal Bill of Rights”. The number one item is:

a) I have the right to make decisions on my feelings.
b) I have the right to ask for what I want.
c) I have the right to change my mind.
d) I have the right to be in a non-abusive environment.

53. McKay, Rogers and McKay list suggestions on how to say no. All of the following would apply except:

a) take your time
b) be specific
c) watch out for guilt
d) express your rights

54. All of the following are causes of low self-esteem except:

a) choosing friends for your child
b) overly critical parents
c) overly protective parents
d) spoiling a child

55. A real life activity that can foster awareness of and closeness to your inner child would be all the following except:

a) having an ice cream cone
b) going to the zoo
c) playing with a pet
d) climbing a tree

56. Of the four types of self-talk, which two are the most destructive to your self-esteem?

a) the worrier and the critic
b) the worrier and the perfectionist
c) the critic and the victim
d) the perfectionist and the victim

57. The biggest obstacle to moving forward on goals is:

a) fear
b) guilt
c) lack of finances
d) lack of support

58. If you are prone to anxiety or panic attacks, caffeine consumption should be:

a) less than 80 mg./day
b) less than 100 mg./day
c) spaced evenly over the course of the day
d) tailored by the therapist depending on your stress level

59. Subjective symptoms of hypoglycemia are:

a) a blood sugar greater than 120 and flushing
b) a fruity odor to the breath and confusion
c) diaphoresis, pallor and twitching of the extremities
d) irritability, weakness, and palpitations

60. The two most common foods causing allergic reactions are:

a) tomatoes and strawberries
b) citrus fruits and peanuts
c) milk or dairy products and wheat
d) eggs and shellfish

61. If you are concerned about having a deficiency of calcium or other minerals, you can ask your doctor or nutritionist to have which test performed?

a) a hair sample
b) a blood sample
c) a urine sample
d) a stool sample

62. Kava should not be taken if you have any of the following conditions except:

a) Parkinson’s disease
b) diabetes
c) breast feeding
d) pregnancy

63. The major advantages of SAM-e is it:

a) relieves depression and is fast acting
b) can be obtained in any health food store in capsules, tea and extract
c) can relieve urinary tract infections and anxiety
d) occurs naturally in the body and when taken orally, has no side effects

64. All of the following are symptoms of adrenal exhaustion except:

a) lethargy, fatigue, and low-stress tolerance
b) light sensitivity and light-headedness
c) hyperglycemia and nervousness
d) frequent colds and respiratory conditions and allergies

65. Candida can be diagnosed by the following ways except:

a) skin cultures
b) a diagnostic questionnaire
c) a blood test
d) stool analysis

66. To detoxify the liver, it is recommended to eat foods:

a) that are high in vitamins C and E
b) that contain natural laxatives
c) from the brassica family
d) that form alkalines

67. An effective herb used to reduce the symptoms of menopause is:

a) passionflower
b) kava
c) black cohosh
d) estrogen supplements

68. During the winter, people with SAD:

a) prefer to remain indoors and sleep
b) have an increase in melatonin, produced by the pineal gland
c) are more irritable and anxious
d) tend to crave sweets and carbohydrates

69. Medications used to treat anxiety disorders are all of the following except:

a) MAO-inhibitors
b) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
c) benzodiazepines
d) serotonin-norepinephrine reputake inhibitors

70. Concentrative mediation focuses on:

a) looking at an object and breathing
b) listening to tapping sounds
c) feelings and thoughts
d) desires and physical sensations

71. An experience of unconditional love:

a) will help you solve problems and make decisions
b) give you a sense of peace and security
c) is the most fundamental characteristic of your Higher Power
d) provides healing