Orthodontic Practice - Removable & Fixed Appliances

Self-Study Examination

Instructions: After studying the text answer the following true/false or multiple choice questions.  Remember, there's only one answer to each question.

1. The person that should be given the credit for developing the fixed orthodontic appliances that are used today is

a) Dr. C. Hawley.
b) Dr. E. Angle.
c) Dr. T. M. Graber.

2. The most versatile orthodontic wire bending pliers are the

a) three-pronged pliers.
b) bird beak pliers.
c) Howe pliers.

3. The orthodontic pliers that are used to bend large wires are the

a) three-pronged pliers.
b) bird beak pliers.
c) Howe pliers.

4. In bending wires for orthodontic appliances, the wire is held with the ______ and bent with the ______.

a) fingers, pliers
b) pliers, fingers
c) none of the above; it does not matter

5. The type of wire usually used for the contruction of removable orthodontic appliances is

a) round.
b) square.
c) rectangular.

6. The size of a round wire for orthodontic purposes is designated by the

a) radius of the wire in mm.
b) diameter of the wire in inches.
c) circumference of the wire in inches.

7. The most common removable orthodontic appliances used for minor tooth movement are the ______ appliances.

a) acrylic
b) wire
c) acrylic and wire

8. A removable orthodontic appliance is composed of the

a) acrylic baseplate.
b) retentive clasps.
c) active elements.
d) all of the above

9. The purpose(s) of the baseplate of a removable orthodontic appliance is/are to

a) act as a vehicle for the active elements.
b) serve as the main source of retention.
c) act as an active element of the appliance.
d) any of the above

10. Removable orthodontic appliances are "tooth bearing," and soft tissue retention is not a requirement.

a) True
b) False

11. As an active element of the removable orthodontic appliance, the baseplace can be utilized to

a) open the bite.
b) expand the maxillary dental arch.
c) a & b

12. When an anterior bite plate is built into the acrylic of a removable orthodontic appliance, the

a) posterior teeth are out of occlusion.
b) anterior teeth continue to erupt.
c) a & b

13. If used successfully, an anterior bite plate appliance

a) opens the bite.
b) closes the bite.
c) expands the maxilla.

14. For every orthodontic force that causes an action,

a) an equal and opposite reaction is produced.
b) a reaction twice the amount of the action is produced.

15. The mandibular removable orthodontic appliance presents more problems than an upper because of the deep undercut found on the ______ surface of the alveolar bone.

a) facial
b) lingual

16. For good mechanical anchorage, the palatal portion of a maxillary removable orthodontic appliance should

a) be "horseshoe" in shape.
b) cover the entire palate.

17. The most commonly used retentive clasp used for removable orthodontic appliances is the

a) circumferential clasp.
b) Adams clasp.
c) ball clasp.

18. The best retentive clasp to use on semi-erupted teeth is the

a) circumferential clasp.
b) Adams clasp.
c) ball clasp.

19. When using a circuferential clasp, the wire should lie along the gingival area of the tooth in order to take advantage of the undercuts on the ______ surface.

a) palatal or lingual
b) facial

20. The Adams clasp consists of

a) two "arrowheads."
b) one "arrowhead" on the facial surface.

21. The action of a removable orthodontic appliance depends on the action of the auxiliary springs used.

a) True
b) False

22. Which of the following is not a free-ended spring?

a) mattress
b) helical coil
c) Hawley

23. An "active" Hawley wire is used for which type of tooth movement?

a) mesial or distal
b) labial or lingual
c) palatal or lingual

24. The activation of a mattress spring produces which type of tooth movement?

a) labial
b) lingual
c) intrusion

25. Usually, an accessory spring is used to accomplish very minor tooth movement.

a) True
b) False

26. The properties of free-ended and accessory springs are those of hard polished stainless steel round wire.

a) True
b) False

27. Within certain limits, the same force may be exerted by a thick wire as by a thin one.

a) True
b) False

28. In orthodontic therapy, the properties required are generally those of a ______ spring.

a) short
b) long

29. It is almost impossible to "grasp" a tooth firmly with the arm of a spring of a removable orthodontic appliance.

a) True
b) False

30. The ______ the arm of a free-ended spring, the straighter the vector of force.

a) shorter
b) longer

31. Under certain conditions, it may be necessary to incorporate more than one coil in a spring to ______ the range of action.

a) decrease
b) increase

32. To aviod contact of the wire of a free-ended spring with adjacent teeth, a ______ is often incorporated.

a) coil
b) compensatory bend

33. Dr. Angle's biggest contribution to fixed orthodontic appliance development was his advent of the ______ appliance.

a) twin-wire
b) Hawley
c) edgewise

34. These pliers are used mostly for the intra-oral placement and removal of labial arch wires. They can also be used to secure the arch wire to the tooth by tightening the ligature wire around the bracket. These pliers are called

a) bird beak.
b) three-pronged
c) Howe

35. With a palm grip, this instrument is used to place the preformed orthodontic band onto a tooth. It is called

a) band pusher.
b) band biter.
c) band contourer.

36. In order to remove a lower molar band, the blunt end of the band removing pliers is placed on the occlusal surface, and the other end of the beak is placed

a) under the buccal-gingival surface of the band.
b) under the lingual-gingival surface of the band.
c) under the distal-gingival surface of the band.

37. The principal component(s) of fixed orthodontic appliances is/are

a) bands.
b) attachments.
c) arch wires.
d) all of the above

38. A tight-fitting orthodontic band serves several purposes during orthodontic treatment, which is/are

a) protects the tooth from caries.
b) used to place various attachments.
c) a & b

39. A posterior orthodontic band should be positioned so that the occlusal portion of the band is at the

a) level of the mesial and distal marginal ridges.
b) center of the buccal surface of the tooth.
c) gingival one-third of the tooth.

40. The "k" distance is measured between the incisal or occlusal edge of a tooth and the

a) gingival edge of the band.
b) center of the bracket.
c) occlusal edge of the band.

41. The two sizes of slots in the "edgewise" bracket are 0.018" X 0.025" and 0.022" X 0.028". The first dimension represents the

a) gingival-occlusal/incisal measurement.
b) facial-lingual/palatal distance.
c) mesial-distal measurement.

42. Referring to question #41, the second dimension is the

a) gingival-occlusal/incisal measurement.
b) facial-lingual/palatal distance.
c) mesial-distal measurement.

43. The most common edgewise bracket used today by orthodontic specialists is the

a) single edgewise bracket.
b) single edgewise bracket with vertical slot.
c) twin edgewise bracket.

44. The most number of buccal tubes on an upper molar band is/are

a) one.
b) two.
c) three.

45. The head gear tube on an upper molar band is

a) round.
b) square.
c) rectangular

46. The arch wire tube on a molar band is

a) round.
b) square.
c) rectangular.

47. The most number of buccal tubes on a lower molar band is/are

a) one.
b) two.
c) three.

48. Example(s) of an auxiliary attachment on a molar band is/are a

a) ball.
b) hook.
c) either a or b

49. The basic requirements of wires for fixed orthodontic therapy are that they should be

a) non-corrosive, and easily formed.
b) maintain their shape and provide controlled and reproducible force delivery.
c) all of the above

50. The first wires used in orthodontics were made from

a) gold alloy.
b) stainless steel alloy.
c) cobalt-chrome-nickel alloys.

51. The type of orthodontic wires that have been used traditionally in modern orthodontics are made from

a) gold alloy.
b) stainless steel alloy.
c) nickel-titanium alloys.

52. The wire alloy that has the advantage of having similar characteristic to gold alloy, but has the advantage of not being corrosive in the oral cavity is

a) stainless steel.
b) cobalt-chromium-nickel
c) nickel-titanium.

53. The wire alloy that has the advantage of being "springy" and capable of bending a large distance without becoming permanently deformed is

a) stainless steel.
b) cobalt-chromium-nickel
c) nickel-titanium

54. The type of wire used most commonly at the outset of fixed orthodontic treatment for such procedures as "leveling" the dental arch and tooth rotations is a

a) round wire.
b) square wire.
c) rectangular wire.

55. Lingual arches, such as those used for space maintainers are made from

a) rectangular wires.
b) square wires.
c) round wires.

56. A typical rectangular arch wire size is 0.016" X 0.022". The _______ size depicts the labial-lingual dimension.

a) first
b) second

57. A labial arch wire attached to the upper right canine, premolars and first permanent molar is termed a

a) continuous arch wire.
b) segmented arch wire.
c) sectional arch wire.
d) b or c

58. From which type of material is a ligature wire made?

a) An alloy containing a majority of nickel.
b) An alloy containing a majority of titanium.
c) A "dead-soft" stainless steel alloy.

59. The term "anchorage" is defined as the nature and degree of resistance to displacement offered by an anatomic unit when used for the purpose of effecting tooth movement.

a) True
b) False

60. A clinician may want to "reinforce" the anchorage value of an upper molar by the use of a

a) head gear.
b) palatal holding arch.
c) a or b

61. Which of the following can be considered to be objective(s) of early orthodontic treatment?

a) Attain genetic growth potential.
b) Remove functional interference.
c) Allow for normal eruptive sequence.
d) all of the above

62. Dr. Alan Brodie stated that "a child's facial growth pattern is established early in life, as early as the ______ of age, and once established, the growth pattern is easily predicted."

a) fourth month
b) first year
c) third year

63. Which is/are example(s) of extrinsic etiologic factors causing a malocclusion?

a) mouth breathing
b) thumb sucking
c) heredity
d) a and b

64. A malocclusion caused by a prolonged thumb sucking habit in the early mixed dentition can be best described by the following word/s.

a) extrinsic
b) transient
c) incipient
d) a and c

65. Regarding the eruption pattern of permanent teeth, which is/are the most important factor(s)?

a) Age at which the teeth erupt.
b) The lowers must always erupt before the uppers.
c) The sequence of eruption.
d) a and b

66. According to the text, interceptive orthodontics is perhaps the most important procedure a general dentist can perform in his or her role as the "watch dog" of the dental profession.

a) True
b) False

67. The "hand-to-mouth" cycle, or early thumb sucking, is abnormal for infants, and every attempt should be made by parents to prevent their child from this "habit" as early as possible.

a) True
b) False

68. The "trident" of habit factors includes

a) duration
b) intensity
c) passivity
d) a and b

69. What are some of the signs of a "thumb sucking malocclusion?"

a) Protrusion of the upper anterior teeth.
b) Lingual positioning of the lower anterior teeth.
c) An anterior open bite.
d) any or all of the above

70. A thumb sucking habit is considered "prolonged" when it persists after approximately what age?

a) 3 to 4 months
b) 3 to 4 years
c) 7 to 9 years

71. What is/are the purpose(s) of a tongue crib for the correction of a prolonged thumb sucking habit?

a) Breaks the suction of the thumb habit.
b) Prevents the thumb from displacing upper incisors.
c) Holds the tongue back during deglutition.
d) all of the above

72. A functional malocclusion caused by a narrowing of the maxilla is an example of a "transient" malocclusion.

a) True
b) False

73. A synonym for a "visceral" swallowing pattern is

a) infantile
b) somatic
c) adult

74. Mouth breathing can be caused by which factor(s)?

a) Proliferated adenoid tissues.
b) A deviated nasal septum.
c) Hypertrophied nasal turbinates.
d) any or all of the above

75. On what anatomical structure are the adenoid tissues located?

a) Anterior wall of the nasal pharynx.
b) Posterior wall of the nasal pharynx.
c) Tip of the soft palate.

76. Upper anterior spacing may be due to protruding incisor teeth, which may be caused by

a) a hyperactive tongue.
b) hypotonic perioral musculature.
c) ectopic tooth eruption.
d) any or all of the above

77. Generally speaking, an orthodontic elastic will generate the force established by the manufacturer when it is

a) stretched to its maximum length.
b) stretched to two times its original lumen diameter.
c) in its passive state.

78. The "ugly duckling" stage of dental development

a) is a transient malocclusion.
b) is an incipient malocclusion.
c) should be treated as soon as possible.
d) b and c

79. Regarding an abnormal frenum attachment,

a) it is usually present because of the diastema.
b) it should be excised prior to orthodontic therapy.
c) electrosurgery is contraindicated for its excision.

80. Which of the following is not True regarding a "pseudo" Class III malocclusion?

a) Caused by lingual inclination of the upper incisors.
b) Is due to an anterior displacement of the mandible.
c) May later develop into a skeletal Class III.
d) Should be treated after growth is complete.

81. Individual anterior cross bites may be due to

a) ectopic eruption.
b) misplaced tooth bud.
c) arch length discrepancy.
d) any or all of the above

82. Which statement is false regarding posterior cross bites of skeletal origin?

a) May be seen in the deciduous and mixed dentitions.
b) The mandible is narrow compared to the maxilla.
c) A prolonged thumb sucking habit may cause it.
d) A quad helix appliance may produce orthopedic results.

83. Which statement is false about a quad helix appliance?

a) Its name is derived from the two helices of the appliance.
b) An initial expansion of 8 mm is placed in the appliance prior to cementation.
c) After cementation, it is possible to make intra-oral adjustments to vary the forces of the appliance.
d) It usually produces orthodontic results on adults.

84. Which statement is false regarding maxillary expansion?

a) It is difficult to produce maxillary orthopedic effects after active growth has ceased.
b) The rapid maxillary expansion appliance contains two bands, and is cemented to the last permanent molars.
c) Maxillary orthopedic expansion appliances effect numerous sutures of the craniofacial complex.
d) After sufficient expansion has been accomplished with the rapid maxillary expansion appliance, the jackscrew is covered with acrylic and the results are retained for at least 90 days.

85. Regarding orthopedic force application,

a) head gear is used to treat skeletal Class II malocclusions.
b) chin cup appliances are used to treat skeletal Class III malocclusions.
c) these forces are usually less than 500 grams.
d) a and b

86. Regarding the use of a head gear,

a) cervical head gear causes intrusion of the molars.
b) high pull head gear is used for skeletal deep bites.
c) combination head gear produces two vectors of force.