Clinical Supervision

Self-Study Examination

Instructions: After studying the text answer the following true/false or multiple choice questions.  Remember, there's only one answer to each question.

1. One can identify supervision models on the basis of emphasis given to certain elements in accord with the orientation and view of the originating theorist. Can you identify the originators of a model that emphasizes service quality and outcome?

a) educationalists
b) managers

2. Identify a strength of individual supervision from below:

a) cost effective in time and money
b) pressure to conform
c) highly personalized
d) emotional support from peers

3. Fosters dependency in supervisees, can become collusive, potential problem with transference issues-these are some of the challenges encountered in

a) individual supervision.
b) group supervision

4. Risk taking can be higher in group supervision.

a) True
b) False

5. AAMFT Code of Ethics prohibits sexual intimacy with clients at all times.

a) True
b) False

6. The code prohibits sexual intimacy with former clients under all circumstances.

a) True
b) False

7. According to the AAMFT Code of Ethics, marriage and family therapists are justified in disclosing client confidences in all of the following circumstances except

a) as mandated by law;
b) to prevent a clear and immediate danger to a person;
c) where the therapist is a defendant in a civil, criminal or disciplinary action;
d) if there is a waiver previously obtained in writing;
e) where more than one person in a family receives therapy, and at least one such member has executed a waiver.

8. The importance of the NASW Code of Ethics to a social worker lies in the fact that it specifies which values, principles, and standards are most important and ought to outweigh others in instances when they conflict.

a) True
b) False

9. Violation of the NASW Code of Ethics is tantamount to violation of the law.

a) True
b) False

10. Social workers' primary responsibility is to the

a) well-being of clients.
b) society at large.
c) requirements of the law.
d) agency that employs them.

11. Social workers may disclose confidential information to third-party payers in order to secure payment for services rendered, irrespective of whether clients have authorized such disclosure.

a) True
b) False

12. Social workers may terminate services to clients in all of the following instances except

a) when such services are no longer required;
b) in fee-for-service settings, when clients are not paying an overdue balance, provided the client does not pose an imminent danger to self or others;
c) to pursue a social or financial relationship with a client;
d) when social workers are leaving an employment setting.

13. The NASW Code of Ethics prohibits supervisors from having sexual relationships with supervisees.

a) True
b) False

14. The NASW Code of Ethics makes exceptions to confidentiality rules when clients are participating in federally funded research and writing.

a) True
b) False

15. The NASW Code of Ethics states that performance evaluations should be shared with those being evaluated.

a) True
b) False

16. Social workers who function as educators or field instructors for students have no responsibility to inform clients when students are providing services.

a) True
b) False

17. There's no formula or "recipe" for good supervision.

a) True
b) False

18. As an aid to explain new management concepts, McGregor advanced X and Y theories. According to McGregor, most workers are motivated only with material rewards and generally shirk from taking responsibility.

a) True
b) False

19. Traditional management placed great emphasis on science and removed human discretion from management decisions.

a) True
b) False

20. What is the most significant barrier to effectively manage diversity in an organization?

a) cutbacks in funding
b) ineffective recruiting
c) failure to recognize that problem exists
d) resistance from other members of the organization

21. In the organizational model of the future, bureaucracy would no longer be necessary.

a) True
b) False

22. Which of the following describes a successful organization?

a) An efficient organization is one that uses minimum amount of resources to achieve its objective.
b) An effective organization is simple and yet meets its objectives.
c) both of the above
d) none of the above

23. Which of the following can pose a diversity-related problem for an organization?

a) increasingly diverse workforce
b) an organization that lacks diversity at all levels
c) both of the above

24. According to Shulman, a supervisor's focus should be on

a) the activities of the worker.
b) the worker himself or herself.

25. The supervisory model proposed by Stoltenberg and Delworth (adopted by Powell) suggests that entry level counselors exhibit all of the following characteristics except

a) highly dependent on others
b) self-awareness
c) rigid stereotyped thinking
d) motivated and idealistic

26. The Integrated Developmental Model for Supervision (IDM) proposed by Stoltenberg and Delworth described 3 levels of supervisor development. Identify the development level for a supervisor that exhibits these characteristics: confusion, conflict and frustr

a) Level 1
b) Level 2
c) Level 3

27. The supervision model has undergone significant changes from the 1950s to 1980s. Which of the following describes the model of the 80's?

a) supervision as a consultative process, a collaborative rather than therapeutic relationship
b) solution-focused, task-oriented, and technique-oriented
c) behavioral/cognitive approach
d) supervision with psychodynamic emphasis

28. Which of the following actions might be considered beyond the ethical and legal boundaries for a supervisor?

a) supervising one's spouse
b) sexual involvement with the supervisee
c) acting as the supervisee's personal therapist
d) sponsoring a supervisee in AA
e) all of the above

29. Which of the following phrases most accurately describes the concept of vicarious liability?

a) failure to disclose
b) dual relationship
c) actions of supervisees imputed to the supervisor and the agency
d) failure to warn

30. Group supervision can fall prey to certain game-playing by members. Which of the following phrases describes the situation where supervisees are trying to avoid their anxieties criticized or explored?

a) "Measuring clocks"
b) "Ain't it awful!!"
c) "We're all so wonderful."
d) "Who's the best supervisor?"
e) "Hunt the patient."

31. Transference and countertransference feelings are often present in a clinical training. Displaced feelings that a student experiences in association with a supervisor that originated in an earlier relationship in the student's life refer to

a) transference.
b) countertransference.

32. Supervisor-supervisee relationship replicates aspects of one of the following relationship:

a) husband-wife
b) parent-child
c) employer-employee
d) counselor-client

33. Problem-solving process is

a) linear.
b) non-linear.

34. There are significant parallels between supervision of staff and working with clients.

a) True
b) False

35. Supervisors should be using ______ in planning ways to promote staff development.

a) androgogy
b) pedagogy

36. Supervisors are encouraged to present themselves to the staff as human beings, but should avoid showing vulnerability, anger and underlying feelings of warmth and caring.

a) True
b) False

37. Which of the following terms is used to describe the ability to tackle complex problems by breaking them down into their component parts and addressing them one at a time?

a) emphathic skill
b) elaborating skill
c) partializing the worker's concerns skill
d) sharing one's feelings skill

38. In dealing with a problem staff member, a new supervisor should do one of the following:

a) collect information about the problem staff member indirectly through the grapevine
b) address the problem directly with the staff member

39. Effective supervisory work with staff groups mandates that supervisors conduct meetings in a democratic fashion, or at least maintain an illusion of democracy.

a) True
b) False

40. Which of the following describes the parallel process in a supervisory relationship:

a) supervisor relating a similar therapy session from personal experience to the supervisee to help understand the present therapy session with a client
b) unconscious replication in the supervisory session of therapeutic difficulties that a supervisee has with a client
c) supervising simultaneously two or more supervisees with similar client cases
d) asking supervisees to draw parallels among several clients to find a common theme

41. When it comes to supervision, management and supervision are the same thing.

a) True
b) False

42. Supervisors are recommended to adhere to the concept of "power over" rather than "power with."

a) True
b) False

43. One of the tools used in clinical assessment by supervisors is called discrepancy analysis. Which of the following statements describes this?

a) examination of the counselor's tasks and skills needed to perform these tasks
b) analysis of the counselor's strengths and weaknesses
c) supervisee's evaluation of the supervisor's performance
d) where the counselor is now versus where he/she should be

44. The dynamics of supervisory endings_either when the staff member leaves or when the supervisor leaves_are similar to those of the worker-client ending.

a) True
b) False

45. According to Munson, the possibility for interaction and growth between the supervisor and supervisee are significantly enhanced when supervisors accept one of the following thinking:

a) Supervisors are responsible for the practitioner's performance.
b) Supervisors are responsible only for clarifying the expected standards of performance.
c) both

46. In the "helping professions" there are often far more required meetings than are really necessary to get the job done efficiently and well.

a) True
b) False

47. Risk management is an integral part of the supervisory relationship. Which of the following options is least likely to work?

a) avoid difficult or litigious clients
b) provide closer supervisory support
c) proper documentation
d) malpractice insurance

48. Which of the following methods of observation requires the presence of the supervisor in the actual session with the supervisee?

a) one-way mirror
b) videotape
c) cofacilitation

49. Latent supervision is often recommended because it allows the supervisor to evaluate the work of the supervisee without undue influence.

a) True
b) False

50. There are many myths regarding time management. Identify one from the following:

a) Time management is a learned skill.
b) It takes too much time to delegate.
c) Time management is individualized, as everyone approaches his or her work and responsibilities in a different way.
d) Time management is a personal responsibility.

51. Regarding procrastination, select the True response from below:

a) People who procrastinate usually have less self-esteem.
b) Procrastination shows a loss of control over the individual's life.
c) both of the above

52. There are many areas of potential liability for social work supervisors. Select the response that would reduce this risk?

a) pay attention to the frequency and scheduling of supervision
b) schedule regular training sessions with line staff
c) maintain close field supervision of social-work students
d) have a good working relationship with the supervisee
e) all of the above

53. A good supervisor tends to think like a therapist rather than like a supervisor.

a) True
b) False

54. Which of the following methods of supervision is likely to be least effective?

a) live observation
b) video-and audio-taped sessions
c) self-reports by supervisees

55. Supervisors do not show as high a level of emotional exhaustion as do line workers.

a) True
b) False

56. Studies show that all of the following are major work-related stressors, but one of them is least likely to cause burnout among supervisors:

a) ambiguous organizational policies
b) role conflict
c) role ambiguity
d) dealing with clients

57. When a supervisor has information that can help the supervisee, would that be a case of

a) must intervention? or
b) can intervention?

59. In a can intervention it is up to the supervisee to decide whether and when he or she wishes to act upon the intervention.

a) True
b) False

60. When a supervisee feels stuck with a resistant and reluctant client who is difficult to engage in the process the supervisor ________ intervene.

a) must
b) can

61. Both supervisors and supervisees engage in game playing.

a) True
b) False

62. According to Kadushin, supervisees play many games. Which statement seeks to redefine the relationship between the supervisee and supervisor?

a) Be nice to me because I'm nice to you.
b) Evaluation is not for friends.
c) So what do you know about it?
d) If you knew what I know.

63. In the drama triangle outlined, positions of client, social worker and supervisor are not fixed; they may move from one role to another.

a) True
b) False

64. Which of the following statements describes transference/countertransference?

a) Dynamics of the social worker/client interaction is brought into the dynamics of the supervisor/social worker interaction.
b) Material from another relationship, usually from the past, is brought into a current interaction.